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  • Question 1 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer: A branch of the anterior interventricular artery

      Correct Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:

      Your Answer: Uptake of iodide across the basolateral membrane into the thyrocyte

      Correct Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Live active or attenuated vaccines: ...

    Incorrect

    • Live active or attenuated vaccines:

      Your Answer: Boosting is often required

      Correct Answer: Side effect may be egg hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines consist of a weakened form of the virus itself and have both advantages and disadvantages. Although they can exert an excellent immune response, potential risks exist. One such concern is the risk of reversion to a more virulent strain of virus. They are easily damaged or destroyed by heat and light, making it even more important that they be stored and refrigerated with care. Live vaccines are not given to immunocompromised persons. A few live vaccines against viruses include: oral polio, measles, mumps, rubella, rota virus and yellow fever. Eggs are used to produce Measles- mumps- rubella vaccine (MMR) and thus hypersensitivity may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer: Tentorium cerebella

      Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      Falx cerebri is a sickle cell fold of dura between the two hemispheres. Its posterior part blends with the superior part of the tentorium cerebelli. The superior sagittal sinus runs in its upper fixed margin, the inferior sagittal sinus in the free concave margin and the straight sinus along its attachment to the tentorium cerebelli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Correct

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache. His BP is 85/50 mm Hg. He has neck stiffness and photophobia. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV fluid and CT head

      Correct Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      In elderly patients, symptoms suggestive of meningitis could be due to an intracranial mass lesion (such as abscess, tumour or an intracerebral haematoma). Therefore elderly patients are increased risk of cerebral herniation from an LP. A CT head should be done before an LP to exclude a mass lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?...

    Correct

    • In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: Na+ dependent peptide transporter 2

      Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become completely condensed into well-defined...

    Incorrect

    • In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become completely condensed into well-defined chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Prophase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by: ...

    Correct

    • Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by:

      Your Answer: Passive diffusion

      Explanation:

      Oxygen enters blood from the alveoli by simple diffusion along a concentration gradient. Concentration of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli are higher than the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. So, oxygen moves from alveoli into blood via simple diffusion according to the concentration gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer: Arrange DEXA scan + start oral bisphosphonate if T-score < -1.5 SD

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.Management:Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D repleteAlendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to: ...

    Correct

    • The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to:

      Your Answer: Increase in intracellular Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility Is not due to ventricular filling. It occurs in isolated locations in the heart and is due to increase availability of intracellular calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - G cells release which of the following substances ...

    Correct

    • G cells release which of the following substances

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      1 molecule of myosin binds to actin at any give time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination:BP: 101/74 mmHgRR: 22 breaths/minPR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the structure of nucleosomes? ...

    Correct

    • What is the structure of nucleosomes?

      Your Answer: Strands of double strand DNA + histones

      Explanation:

      DNA is packed and condensed by binding to histone proteins. The double stranded DNA forms a complex with histone proteins which is called a nucleosome. There are 8 histone proteins contained in one core of nucleosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion....

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed:Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/lNa+: 136 mmol/lK+: 4.6 mmol/lUrea: 8.1 mmol/lCreatinine: 99 µmol/lBicarbonate: 18 mmol/lWhat is the most appropriate management for the patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hoursAs post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle?

      Your Answer: Striato-smooth and involuntary

      Correct Answer: Striated and involuntary

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle (heart muscle) is an involuntary, striated muscle that is found in the walls and histological foundation of the heart, specifically the myocardium. Cardiac muscle is one of three major types of muscle, the others being skeletal and smooth muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Dietary starch is mainly: ...

    Incorrect

    • Dietary starch is mainly:

      Your Answer: Glucose

      Correct Answer: Amylopectin

      Explanation:

      Dietary starch consists of two types of molecules: the linear and helical amylose and the branched amylopectin. Starch generally contains 20 to 25% amylose and 75 to 80% amylopectin by weight but depends in the plant. Glycogen, the glucose store of animals, is a more branched version of amylopectin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme deficiency causes Beriberi?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Beriberi refers to a cluster of symptoms caused primarily by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. Symptoms of beriberi include weight loss, emotional disturbances, impaired sensory perception, weakness and pain in the limbs, and periods of irregular heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance...

    Correct

    • Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance of them having a normal child is?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The chance for normal parents having a child with a recessive disease is 1:4 or 25%. As both the parents are heterozygous for this condition. They have a 3:4 chance of having a normal child or 75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Correct Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?

      Your Answer: Sotalol

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Depolarisation of the t-tubular system

      Correct Answer: Binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin

      Explanation:

      In the excitation contraction coupling model, an action potential is transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors. These are voltage gates calcium channels. Calcium binds to calmodulin during contraction of the smooth muscle and not the cardiac muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the?

      Your Answer: Marginal branch of the right coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The anterior interventricular artery or left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior 2/3rds of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to:

      Your Answer: Cardiolipin

      Correct Answer: Troponin c

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: It has a half-life of 12 h

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The hippocampus is involved in the memory of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The hippocampus is involved in the memory of:

      Your Answer: Habituation

      Correct Answer: Facts

      Explanation:

      The hippocampus plays an important role in forming new memories about experienced events. Some researchers say that hippocampus plays a major role in declarative memory for example memory of facts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      12.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/9) 22%
Medicine (12/30) 40%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (1/3) 33%
Genetics (2/4) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Passmed