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  • Question 1 - A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site....

    Correct

    • A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?

      Your Answer: Anterior papillary muscle of the left ventricle

      Correct Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)

      Explanation:

      The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      128
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of...

    Incorrect

    • Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of cancer. Which of the following is the correct indication for this drug?

      Your Answer: Hairy cell leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Etoposide phosphate is an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II. It is used as a form of chemotherapy for malignancies such as lung cancer, testicular cancer, lymphoma, non-lymphocytic leukaemia and glioblastoma multiforme. Side effects are very common and can include low blood cell counts, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, hair loss, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Loperamide is a drug used to treat diarrhoea. What is the mechanism of...

    Correct

    • Loperamide is a drug used to treat diarrhoea. What is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

      Your Answer: Opiate agonist

      Explanation:

      Loperamide is an opioid-receptor agonist and acts on the mu opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of large intestine. It works by decreasing the motility of the circular and longitudinal smooth muscles of the intestinal wall. It is often used for this purpose in gastroenteritis, inflammatory bowel disease, and short bowel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 260 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l

      What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 100 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 × 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Where does the ejaculatory duct open into? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the ejaculatory duct open into?

      Your Answer: Prostatic urethra

      Explanation:

      There are two ejaculatory ducts, one on either side of the midline. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicles with the ductus deferens. They start at the base of the prostate and run forward and downward between the middle and lateral lobes and along the side of the prostatic utricle to end in the prostatic urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the opening of the atrioventricular (AV)...

    Correct

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the opening of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: Beginning of diastole

      Explanation:

      Cardiac diastole refers to the time period when the heart is relaxed after contraction and is preparing to refill with blood. Both ventricular and atrial diastole are together known as complete cardiac diastole. At its beginning, the ventricles relax, causing a drop in the ventricular pressure. As soon as the left ventricular pressure drops below that in left atrium, the mitral valve opens and there is ventricular filling of blood. Similarly, the tricuspid valve opens filling the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after activity. X-rays reveal an expansible, eccentric, lytic lesion in the metaphysis distally in the affected bone surrounded by new bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondrosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Explanation:

      Aneurysmal bone cysts tend to develop in patients younger than 20 years old. They usually occur in the metaphyseal region of long bones, and are cystic lesions composed of numerous blood filled channels that grow slowly. In X-rays, they show up as circumscribed lesions, sometimes surrounded by new bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: FOLFOX

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      191.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old man with a left-sided indirect inguinal hernia underwent emergency surgery to relieve large bowel obstruction resulting from a segment of the bowel being strangulated in the hernial sac. The most likely intestinal segment involved is:

      Your Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The sigmoid colon is the most likely segment involved as it is mobile due to the presence of the sigmoid mesocolon. The descending colon, although on the left side, is a bit superior and is also retroperitoneal. The ascending colon and caecum are on the right side of the abdomen. The rectum is too inferior to enter the deep inguinal ring and the transverse colon is too superior to be involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the resistance of the artery if the pressure at one end is 60 mmHg, pressure at the other end is 20 mm Hg and the flow rate in the artery is 200 ml/min.

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Flow in any vessel = Effective perfusion pressure divided by resistance, where effective perfusion pressure is the mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end. Thus, in the given problem, resistance = (60 − 20)/200 = 0.2 mmHg/ml per min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      90.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Correct

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      150.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant mesothelioma. Exposure to which...

    Correct

    • A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant mesothelioma. Exposure to which substance increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?

      Your Answer: Asbestos

      Explanation:

      Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in...

    Correct

    • Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis

      Explanation:

      The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Incorrect

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Spinal accessory

      Correct Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Correct

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound to the chest. The wound is in a part of the left lung that might partially fill the costomediastinal recess in full respiration. Where did the weapon strike this man?

      Your Answer: Hilum

      Correct Answer: Lingula

      Explanation:

      During full inspiration, the lingual-of the left lung partially fills the costomediastinal recess. If the apex of the lung is fully filled with air, it would occupy the copula (the part of the pleura that extends above the first rib). The hilum is part of the lung where the neurovascular structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung and doesn’t expand on inspiration. The middle lobe can expand to fill the costomediastinal recess, however, the middle lobe is on the right lung. The inferior lobe, during full inspiration, might fill the costodiaphragmatic recess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      120
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover...

    Correct

    • The pleural cavity is the space between the two pulmonary pleurae which cover the lungs. What is the normal amount of pleural fluid?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Pleural fluid is a serous fluid produced by the serous membrane covering normal pleurae. Most fluid is produced by the parietal circulation (intercostal arteries) via bulk flow and reabsorbed by the lymphatic system. The total volume of fluid present in the intrapleural space is estimated to be only 2–10 ml. A small amount of protein is present in intrapleural fluid. Normally, the rate of reabsorption increases as a physiological response to accumulating fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is...

    Correct

    • After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe persistent vomiting

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Incorrect

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Iliopectineal line

      Correct Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain, a computed tomography showed a large mass in the posterior mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the posterior mediastinum include:

      Superior: a plane through the sternal angle and T4/5

      Inferior: the diaphragm

      Anterior: the middle mediastinal structures

      Posterior the spinal cord.

      Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. In this case, the lymph nodes is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      148.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the cause of flattened (notched) T waves on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The T-wave is formed due to ventricular repolarisation. Normally, it is seen as a positive wave. It can be normally inverted (negative) in V1 (occasionally in V2-3 in African-Americans/Afro-Caribbeans). Hyperacute T-waves are the earliest ECG change of acute myocardial infarction. ECG findings of hyperkalaemia include high, tent-shaped T-waves, a small P-wave and a wide QRS complex. Hypokalaemia results in flattened (notched) T-waves, U-waves, ST-segment depression and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the...

    Correct

    • A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      98.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male,...

    Correct

    • A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male, chronic smoker will mostly likely show which cellular adaptation?

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is a change in the cell type caused in part due to an extrinsic stress on the organ. It involves a change in the surface epithelium from one cell type to the another, most commonly squamous to columnar. This is a reversible process, and removal of the stress should theoretically reverse the surface epithelium back to normal morphology. Respiratory tract metaplasia is a classic example, in which the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium to better cope with the stress. Under continuous stress metaplasia can progress to dysplasia which is a disordered growth of cells eventually leading to the development of carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which best describes the sartorius muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which best describes the sartorius muscle?

      Your Answer: Will flex the leg at the knee joint

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle arises from tendinous fibres from the superior iliac spine. It passes obliquely across the thigh from lateral to medial and is inserted into the upper part of the medial side of the tibia. When the sartorius muscle contracts it will flex the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      111.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal...

    Correct

    • A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal structure and no increase in serum glucose after oral intake of a protein-rich diet. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is responsible for this disorder?

      Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase

      Explanation:

      The most common glycogen storage disorder is von Gierke’s disease or glycogen storage disease type I. It results from a deficiency of enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which affects the ability of liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and gluconeogenesis; leading to severe hypoglycaemia. There is also increased glycogen storage in the liver and kidneys causing enlargement and various problems in their functioning. The disease also causes lactic acidosis and hyperlipidaemia. The main treatment includes frequent or continuous feedings of corn-starch or other carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:

      Your Answer: Proteolytic activation of fibrinogen

      Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      81.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (4/5) 80%
Anatomy (8/13) 62%
Thorax (0/3) 0%
Pathology (5/7) 71%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/2) 0%
Physiology (6/10) 60%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Passmed