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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent on the heart?

      Your Answer: It decreases the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole

      Explanation:

      Inotropic agents increase the contractility of the heart as well as the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole, generating a greater pressure and increasing the stroke volume e.g. like catecholamines do.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Eosinophils provide immunity against ...

    Correct

    • Eosinophils provide immunity against

      Your Answer: Multi cellular parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells? ...

    Correct

    • Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells are hepatic macrophages. They are responsible for 80% of the phagocytic activity in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In cardiac muscle, which of the following is directly responsible for the release...

    Incorrect

    • In cardiac muscle, which of the following is directly responsible for the release of Ca2+ stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (calcium-induced calcium release)?

      Your Answer: Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

      Correct Answer: Ryanodine receptor (RyR)

      Explanation:

      Ryanodine receptor (RyR) is a ligand-gated Ca2+ channel with Ca2+ as its natural ligand. In skeletal muscle, Ca2+ entry from ECF by this route is not required for Ca2+ release. Instead, the DHPR that serves as the voltage sensor unlocks release of Ca2+ from the nearby SR via physical interaction with the RyR. The release is amplified through ca-induced ca release. However, in cardiac muscle, it is the influx of extracellular Ca2+ through the voltage-sensitive DHPR in the T system that triggers ca-induced ca release trough the RyR at the SR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer: A branch of the left circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as:...

    Incorrect

    • Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as:

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Axoplasmic flow

      Explanation:

      Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as axoplasmic, axonal flow or Axonal transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: None of the above telomeres shorten with all cell divisions

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old female presents with sudden onset pain, swelling and stiffness in her right knee. Her medical history is significant for osteoarthritis affecting her hand joints and diet controlled diabetes mellitus. On examination, the right knee is swollen, erythematous and tender. Which of the following tests would be most useful in the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Aspiration and examination of the synovial fluid

      Explanation:

      Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Protein digestion starts in the stomach by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Protein digestion starts in the stomach by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin which is secreted by gastric chief cells and is converted to pepsin, in the presence of gastric HCL. Pepsin is a peptidase that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year old female? (in comparison to a normal 24 yr. old female)

      Your Answer: Decreased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Correct Answer: Increased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Explanation:

      During menopause, a woman’s number of ovarian follicles becomes depleted; as a result, oestrogen and progesterone levels drop, and LH and FSH levels increase. One of the criteria to diagnose menopause is the absence of menstrual period for a year, along with a serum FSH level increased to 30 mIU/ml or higher. LH also rises with the onset of menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the mode of action of amiodarone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Sodium channel blocker

      Correct Answer: Potassium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic drug. Class III antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers, they prolong duration of action potential with resulting prolongation of effective refractory period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?

      Your Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart,...

    Incorrect

    • If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart, the rate will be approximately:

      Your Answer: 50/ min

      Correct Answer: 100/min

      Explanation:

      The normal heart beat is about 70/min. This is due to a predominant parasympathetic activity. If sympathetic activity was unopposed the heart rate would have been 150/min. When both the noradrenergic and cholinergic systems are blocked the heart rate is 100/min. This is the normal firing rate of the SA node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: Androgen receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?

      Your Answer: Zona reticularis

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal gland. In it, aldosterone is secreted as a response to an increase in potassium levels, decreased blood flow, or renin. This secretion is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements correctly describes a function of the parasympathetic innervation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements correctly describes a function of the parasympathetic innervation of the GI tract.

      Your Answer: Excessive parasympathetic activity can lead to a pathological state called paralytic ileus.

      Correct Answer: Parasympathetic cholinergic activity increases the activity of intestinal smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      The parasympathetic nerves stimulate peristalsis and relax the sphincters; they also stimulate secretion. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules? ...

    Correct

    • What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules?

      Your Answer: Kinesin and dynein

      Explanation:

      The major motor proteins that interact with microtubules are kinesin, which usually moves toward the (+) end of the microtubule, and dynein, which moves toward the (−) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not...

    Correct

    • In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not expect to find?

      Your Answer: Hypohidrosis

      Explanation:

      Features of acromegaly may include:

      • Soft tissue swelling visibly resulting in enlargement of the hands, feet, nose, lips and ears, and a general thickening of the skin
      • Soft tissue swelling of internal organs, notably the heart with associated weakening of its muscularity, and the kidneys, vocal cords (resulting in a characteristic thick, deep voice and slowing of speech)
      • Generalized expansion of the skull at the fontanelle, frontal bossing, prognathism with associated macroglossia (enlargement of the tongue) and teeth spacing.
      • Hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation and hyperhidrosis (not hypohidrosis) may occur in these patients as well as carpal tunnel syndrome and impotence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound?

      Your Answer: Closure of the atrio-ventricular valves

      Correct Answer: Ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle in atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Cholinergic neurons that pass into a retrograde direction activate neurons that release: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholinergic neurons that pass into a retrograde direction activate neurons that release:

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

      Correct Answer: Substance P and acetyl choline

      Explanation:

      Serotonin activates sensory neurons that activate the myenteric plexus. Cholinergic neurons passing in a retrograde direction in the myenteric plexus activate neurons that release substance P and acetylcholine, causing smooth muscle contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE

      Your Answer: Gene probes can be labelled with radioactive isotopes g 32 p

      Correct Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • What is cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Product of stroke volume and heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by...

    Incorrect

    • Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by binding of which molecule to the exposed site on the myosin.

      Your Answer: ADP

      Correct Answer: ATP

      Explanation:

      A crossbridge is a myosin projection, consisting of two myosin heads, that extends from the thick filaments. Each myosin head has two binding sites: one for ATP and another for actin. The binding of ATP to a myosin head detaches myosin from actin, thereby allowing myosin to bind to another actin molecule. Once attached, the ATP is hydrolysed by myosin, which uses the released energy to move into the cocked position whereby it binds weakly to a part of the actin binding site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Release of serotonin from platelet granules

      Correct Answer: Collagen fibers underlying the endothelium

      Explanation:

      The contact activation (intrinsic) pathway begins with formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and FXII (Hageman factor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/8) 25%
Medicine (14/30) 47%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Connective Tissue (4/4) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Passmed