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Question 1
Incorrect
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The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?
Your Answer: 15 weeks
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?
Your Answer: X-Ray
Correct Answer: USS
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 3
Correct
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An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, his BP was normal. Urinalysis showed a high degree of proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Minimal change GN
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a type of glomerulonephritis that mostly affects younger children. Proteinuria is present which leads to body oedema. But in these patients blood pressure is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?
Your Answer: Jump up and down
Correct Answer: Point to three body parts
Explanation:A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 7
Correct
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A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby’s blood group was A rhesus negative and mother’s blood group O Rhesus negative.Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: ABO incompatibility
Explanation:Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high‐titre anti‐(group B) IgG
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Correct
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Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?
Your Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer: Oral steroids
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with no other symptoms leading up to the fever. He recently had a surgical extraction of one of his incisors two weeks before consultation. On examination of CVS, a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is heard. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infection
Explanation:Tooth extraction or any surgical procedure may introduce bacteria into the blood stream. The most commonly involved organisms include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans. Once in the blood, these organisms have a very high tendency of attaching to the walls of the heart and causing inflammation known as endocarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following ages should a child be expected to draw a line and start cutting with scissors?
Your Answer: 6-7 years
Correct Answer: 2- 2 1/2 years
Explanation:Fine motor development involves greater use of the hands to perform more precise tasks. By 6 -12 months children should be able to reach for small objects and pass an object from one hand to the other. From 1 -2 years they can perform more complex tasks such a building a tower of blocks, feeding themselves, and turning knobs. In terms of pencil skills, they should be able to imitate scribbles and then spontaneously scribble. By the age of 2 years they can draw a line, and by three they can draw a circle. From the age of 3.5 they can draw a cross, 4.5 – a square, 5 – a triangle, and 6 a diamond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 13
Correct
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To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise?
Your Answer: Seminal vesicles
Explanation:The mesonephric duct is one of the paired embryogenic tubules that drain the primitive kidney (mesonephros) to the cloaca. It also gives off a lateral branch forming the ureteric bud. In both the male and the female the Wolffian duct develops into the trigone of the urinary bladder. When the ducts are exposed to testosterone during embryogenesis, male sexual differentiation occurs: the mesonephric duct develops into the rete testis, the ejaculatory ducts, the epididymis, the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The groups were not large enough to assess the efficacy of the new treatment
Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference
Explanation:The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 15
Correct
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Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?
Your Answer: Microglia
Explanation:The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells| neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 16
Correct
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Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?
Your Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for which one?
Your Answer: Physiological jaundice
Explanation:Physiological jaundice is the condition in which there is a yellow discolouration of the eyes and the skin of the baby caused by the build up of bilirubin in the blood due to an immature liver. No other symptoms accompany physiological jaundice, thus it will not present with difficulty in feeding. All the other conditions listed can present with feeding problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Recurrent blepharitis
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?
Your Answer: Posterior urethral valves
Explanation:Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month later, he presents with anorexia, malaise, reduced urine output and fever. Laboratory investigations reveal: Hb - 12.6 g/dL WBC Count - 13,000/µL Urea - 30 mmol/L Creatinine - 400 µmol/L| andUrinalysis shows numerous pus cells. What is the probable cause of the presenting symptoms of the patient?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis
Explanation:Among the given options, the most likely cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is acute interstitial nephritis secondary to anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)Drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis can occur following treatment with beta-lactams, sulphonamides, rifampicin, ethambutol, and erythromycin. They can cause an acute allergic reaction with the infiltration of immune cells.Acute interstitial nephritis is said to be the most common renal complication in patients undergoing anti-TB treatment. Rifampicin is the most implicated drug, although ethambutol can also be a cause. The pathogenesis involves an immune-complex mediated acute allergic response, which leads to their deposition on renal vessels, the glomerular endothelium, and the interstitial area. Other options:Isoniazid does not affect the kidneys. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is a feature of Goodpasture’s syndrome. It is characterized by renal failure and lung haemorrhage. Severe cardiac or renal failure ensues and is complicated by pulmonary oedema, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?
Your Answer: Tinea corporis
Correct Answer: Keratosis pilaris
Explanation:Keratosis pilaris most often affects the outer aspect of both upper arms. It may also occur on the thighs, buttocks and sides of the cheeks, and less often on the forearms and upper back. The distribution is symmetrical.The scaly spots may appear skin coloured, red (keratosis pilaris rubra) or brown (hyperpigmented keratosis pilaris). They are not itchy or sore.Macules are flat, nonpalpable lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter.Examples include freckles, flat moles, tattoos, and port-wine stains, and the rashes of rickettsial infections, rubella, measles (can also have papules and plaques), and some allergic drug eruptions.Papules are elevated lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter that can be felt or palpated. Examples include nevi, warts, lichen planus, insect bites, seborrheic keratoses, actinic keratoses, some lesions of acne, and skin cancers. Plaques are palpable lesions > 10 mm in diameter that are elevated or depressed compared to the skin surface. Plaques may be flat topped or rounded. Lesions of psoriasis and granuloma annulare commonly form plaques.Nodules are firm papules or lesions that extend into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Examples include cysts, lipomas, and fibromas.Vesicles are small, clear, fluid-filled blisters < 10 mm in diameter. Vesicles are characteristic of herpes infections, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and some autoimmune blistering disorders (e.g., dermatitis herpetiformis).Bullae are clear fluid-filled blisters > 10 mm in diameter. These may be caused by burns, bites, irritant contact dermatitis or allergic contact dermatitis, and drug reactions. Classic autoimmune bullous diseases include pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid. Bullae also may occur in inherited disorders of skin fragility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 7-year-old asthmatic boy presented to the pulmonologist with an exacerbation of shortness of breath for 3 days. At the time of admission, he was still experiencing breathlessness with oxygen saturation found to be less than 90%. CXR shows bilateral hyperinflation. Which of the following should be done?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gas
Explanation:Arterial blood gas is useful for the evaluation of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange, respiratory function including hypoxia, and acid/base balance. This will quickly indicate if assisted ventilation is required for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a 14-year-old girl with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:A patient with Down’s syndrome is likely to be subfertile rather than infertile.Down’s syndrome:The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include:- Face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small ears, and round/flat face- Flat occiput- Single palmar crease, pronounced ‘sandal gap’ in the first interdigital space of the feet.- Hypotonia- Congenital heart defects (40-50%)- Duodenal atresia- Hirschsprung’s diseaseThe cardiac complications in these patients include:- Endocardial cushion defect (40%)- Ventricular septal defect (30%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (5%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (5%)The complications that occur later in the life of the patient include:- Subfertility: Males are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis. Females, however, are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.- Learning difficulties- Short stature- Repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia- Hypothyroidism- Alzheimer’s disease- Atlantoaxial instability
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?
Your Answer: USG
Correct Answer: Exploratory surgery
Explanation:The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Anterior urethral meatal position is a strong predictor of the child having a disorder of sexual development
Correct Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed
Explanation:Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.
Your Answer: Atonic seizure
Correct Answer: Partial generalized seizure
Explanation:The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Correct
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An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?
Your Answer: Endocardial cushions
Explanation:The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 32
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?
Your Answer: The Moro reflex is absent
Explanation:Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 34
Correct
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A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Meningococcaemia
Explanation:Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?
Your Answer: Proteinuria
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 37
Correct
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Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?
Your Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic
Explanation:A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Basilar skull fracture
Explanation:Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 39
Correct
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Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?
Your Answer: Chromosome 15
Explanation:Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 40
Correct
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A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following should be used in the immediate management of the condition?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:Severe cyanotic heart diseases such as pulmonary stenosis, transposition of the great vessels, hypoplastic left heart syndrome and truncus arteriosus all run the risk of a poor prognosis for a neonate. To continue the supply of oxygen the ductus arteriosus must be kept patent. This can be done with the immediate administration of Prostaglandin E1 as a temporary measure until a surgical intervention such as an atrial septostomy can be done. The closure of the duct can subsequently be initiated with the administration of indomethacin and oxygen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Retinoblastoma
Correct Answer: Gillespie syndrome
Explanation:Leukocoria is an abnormal red reflex in which the pupil appears white. It represents various abnormalities of the visual media and is one of the primary signs of retinoblastoma. Other possible causes of leukocoria include congenital cataracts, toxocariasis, Norrie disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and Coat’s disease. Gillespie syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by congenital hypotonia, multiple ocular defects, hypoplasia of the cerebellum, and vertebral deformities. The ocular defects consist of aniridia, photophobia, reduced visual acuity, and the inability of the pupillary sphincter to contract. Leukocoria is not associated with this syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 42
Correct
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?
Your Answer: Food
Explanation:In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative with asthma compared with only 10% of a sample of children without asthma. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Having a first-degree relative with asthma is predictive of childhood asthma
Correct Answer: To interpret the results we need to know how the samples were selected
Explanation:Observational studies fall under the category of analytic study designs and are further sub-classified as observational or experimental study designs. The goal of analytic studies is to identify and evaluate causes or risk factors of diseases or health-related events. The differentiating characteristic between observational and experimental study designs is that in the latter, the presence or absence of undergoing an intervention defines the groups. By contrast, in an observational study, the investigator does not intervene and rather simply “observes” and assesses the strength of the relationship between an exposure and disease variable.Three types of observational studies include cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies. Case-control and cohort studies offer specific advantages by measuring disease occurrence and its association with an exposure by offering a temporal dimension (i.e. prospective or retrospective study design). Cross-sectional studies, also known as prevalence studies, examine the data on disease and exposure at one particular time point. Because the temporal relationship between disease occurrence and exposure cannot be established, cross-sectional studies cannot assess the cause and effect relationshipDisadvantage of Cohort study is Susceptible to selection bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?
Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder
Explanation:A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when:- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever.- The symptoms of OCD or tic symptoms suddenly become worse following a strep infection.The symptoms are usually dramatic, happen “overnight and out of the blue,” and can include motor or vocal tics or both and obsessions, compulsions, or both. In addition to these symptoms, children may become moody or irritable, experience anxiety attacks, or show concerns about separating from parents or loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the clinic with a month-long history of headaches, which are worse in the morning and when lying down. There is no significant past medical history and he is not currently taking any medications. Eye examination reveals left sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. A lesion is most likely suspected in which of the following sites?
Your Answer: Superior right optic radiation
Correct Answer: Right sided optic tract
Explanation:Homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a visual field defect involving either two right or the two left halves of the visual field of both eye. It results from the damage of the visual pathway in its suprachiasmatic part. The causes of HH include stroke, brain tumours, head injuries, neurosurgical procedures, multiple sclerosis and miscellaneous conditions. HH result in a severe visual impairment and affect a variety of cognitive visual functions. Patients with HH frequently have difficulties with reading and scanning scenes in sufficiently rapid fashion to make sense of things as a whole. They stumble, fall or knock objects in their surroundings, since they cannot see them and they are frequent surprised that somebody or something suddenly appeared in their visual field. The prognosis of visual field deficit recovery is highly variable and depends on the cause and severity of brain nd optic pathway injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?
Your Answer: Marfan syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:- Loeys-Dietz syndrome- Antley-Bixler syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Lujan-Frinz syndrome- Haim-Munk syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Spondylocostal dysostosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 48
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?
Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation:The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 49
Correct
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A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 50
Correct
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A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?
Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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