00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The hepatic portal vein is a large vessel formed by which of the following veins?

      Your Answer: The superior mesenteric vein.

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      The portal vein is usually formed by the confluence of the superior mesenteric and splenic veins and also receives blood from the inferior mesenteric, gastric, and cystic veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Correct

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.8
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following components regulate cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle.

      Explanation:

      Although the majority of the filtered magnesium is reabsorbed within the ascending loop of Henle, it is now recognized that the distal tubule also plays an important role in magnesium conservation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true?

      Your Answer: It is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound is produced due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. It is a high pitched dub sound.

      Normally the aortic closure sound (A2) occurs prior to the pulmonic closure sound (P2), and the interval between the two (splitting) widens on inspiration and narrows on expiration. With quiet respiration, A2 will normally precede P2 by 0.02 to 0.08 second (mean, 0.03 to 0.04 sec) with inspiration. In younger subjects inspiratory splitting averages 0.04 to 0.05 second during quiet respiration. With expiration, A2 and P2 may be superimposed and are rarely split as much as 0.04 second. If the second sound is split by greater than 0.04 second on expiration, it is usually abnormal. Therefore, the presence of audible splitting during expiration (i.e., the ability to hear two distinct sounds during expiration) is of greater significance at the bedside in identifying underlying cardiac pathology than is the absolute inspiratory increase in the A2–P2 interval.

      The respiratory variation of the second heart sound can be categorized as follows: (1) normal (physiologic) splitting; (2) persistent (audible expiratory) splitting, with normal respiratory variation; (3) persistent splitting without respiratory variation (fixed splitting); and (4) reversed (paradoxical) splitting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere? ...

    Correct

    • During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      During the prometaphase the microtubule organizing centre completely develops. The spindle fibers attach to the chromosome and the centriole. It is in the Anaphase however that the spindle fibers contract pulling the sister chromatids apart. Later in the anaphase a cleave furrow beings to forms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Where does most fat digestion begin? ...

    Correct

    • Where does most fat digestion begin?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine (in the duodenum). The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Platelets are stored in this body organ. ...

    Correct

    • Platelets are stored in this body organ.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Megakaryocyte and platelet production is regulated by thrombopoietin. Each megakaryocyte produces between 1,000 and 3,000 platelets during its lifetime. An average of 1011 platelets are produced daily in a healthy adult. Reserve platelets are stored in the spleen, and are released when needed by splenic contraction induced by the sympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult.Her blood investigations revealed:White cell count: 13 × 109/lHaemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dlActivated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): NormalPlatelets: 140 × 109/lINR: 6.0Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal.Other investigations:An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal.An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Stop warfarin and observe

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate. Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1.4
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Hemopoietic stem cells - basophils

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) or hemocytoblasts are the stem cells that give rise to all the other blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They give rise to both the myeloid and lymphoid lineages of blood cells. (Myeloid cells include monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, dendritic cells, and megakaryocytes or platelets. Lymphoid cells include T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on...

    Correct

    • Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on the microvilli of the intestinal epithelium?

      Your Answer: Hydrolases

      Explanation:

      There are certain enzymes which are part of the brush border cells including hydrolases also known as the brush border hydrolases. They perform the final step in digestion of certain nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      1.7
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of the active endopeptidases from their inactive precursors?

      Your Answer: Enterokinase

      Explanation:

      Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme of the duodenum that activates proteolytic enzymes for further digestion of proteins. Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by the action of enterokinase. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells and are enzymes that aid in protein digestion. Pepsin is secreted by chief cells of gastric mucosa. Procarboxydase is the inactive form of carboxypeptidase which is converted to its active form by trypsin and is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      1.3
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps? ...

    Correct

    • Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps?

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      Of the nerve fibers that make up the brachial plexus, C7 mainly forms the radial nerve to innervate the triceps muscle, thus innervating the shoulders, elbow, wrist and hand. C7 is responsible for the triceps reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.2
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is a sympathetic neurotransmitter which increases the heart rate. During atrial fibrillation the atria is contracting at more than 200 beats/min. Acetylcholine is a parasympathetic neurotransmitter decreasing the heart rate. Digital also depresses the conduction at the AV conduction. Vagal discharge and occulocardiac reflux decrease the heart rate and convert the tachycardia into normal sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.4
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which factor produced by the endothelium is responsible for the regulation of vascular...

    Correct

    • Which factor produced by the endothelium is responsible for the regulation of vascular cell growth?

      Your Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      VEGF is produced by the endothelial cells and is the major growth factor responsible for causing vasculogenesis. Some isoforms of this growth factor also have a prominent role in formation of lymphatic vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Vagotomy leads to the following: ...

    Correct

    • Vagotomy leads to the following:

      Your Answer: Irregular and chaotic peristalsis

      Explanation:

      The Vagus nerve is primarily responsible for autonomic regulation involved in heart, lung and gastrointestinal function. The gastric branches supply the stomach. The right branch joins the celiac plexus and supplies the intestines. Vagotomy involves cutting of the vagus nerve or its branches which is a now-obsolete therapy that was performed for peptic ulcer disease. Vagotomy causes a decrease in peristalsis and a change in the emptying patterns of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - In which area is depolarization initiated? ...

    Correct

    • In which area is depolarization initiated?

      Your Answer: SA node

      Explanation:

      SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. It determines the rate of contractions. It is the place where depolarization is initiated. It exhibits phase 4 depolarization or automaticity. Electrical impulses then spread to the AV node, purkinje fibers, bundle of his and the ventricular muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Radicular arteries

      Correct Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      12.5
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - The following occurs as a result of 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate binding to deoxyhaemoglobin ...

    Correct

    • The following occurs as a result of 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate binding to deoxyhaemoglobin

      Your Answer: A reduction in deoxyhaemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

      Explanation:

      2,3-BPG acts as a heteroallosteric effector of haemoglobin, lowering haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen by binding preferentially to deoxyhaemoglobin. An increased concentration of BPG in red blood cells favours formation of the T, low-affinity state of haemoglobin and so the oxygen-binding curve will shift to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following has the shortest duration: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the shortest duration:

      Your Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      Atrial systole: 0.1s

      Atrial diastole: around 0.4s

      Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s

      Ventricular systole: 0.27s

      PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.5
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily.Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?

      Your Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions. This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Correct

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      1.2
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Gitelman syndrome is an autosomal recessive kidney disorder characterized by hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria, and hypomagnesemia. In contrast to patients with Gordon’s syndrome, those suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome are generally normotensive or hypotensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      1.5
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE

      Your Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.8
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The rate of depolarisation of the sinus node membrane potential is modulated by...

    Correct

    • The rate of depolarisation of the sinus node membrane potential is modulated by all the following except:

      Your Answer: Cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output has no effect on the depolarization of the pacemaker potential of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.9
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Afferent fibers from the baroreceptors of the great arteries form branches of which...

    Correct

    • Afferent fibers from the baroreceptors of the great arteries form branches of which cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The receptors of the carotid sinus are innervated by the carotid sinus nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. The aortic arch receptors located in the arch of the aorta are innervated by the aortic depressor nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - What is troponin? ...

    Correct

    • What is troponin?

      Your Answer: A component of thin filaments

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      1.5
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      2.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Medicine (28/30) 93%
Genetics (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (10/10) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal (4/4) 100%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard