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  • Question 1 - Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: ABVD

      Correct Answer: FOLFOX

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?

      Your Answer: H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      117
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a...

    Incorrect

    • A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?

      Your Answer: Azygos vein

      Correct Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      98.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the...

    Correct

    • The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the jaw?

      Your Answer: Protrude the mandible

      Explanation:

      The combined effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles results in the protrusion of the mandible. The lateral pterygoid muscle is a muscle of mastication located superiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle and has two heads. The superior head originates on the infratemporal surface and infratemporal crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, and the inferior head on the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. The insertion of this muscle is on the front margin of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint. The unilateral contraction of the pterygoid muscle results in the laterotrusion of the mandible. It is important to note that the lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that can open the jaw.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Incorrect

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A gradual increase in inward Na+ (INa) channels current through fast Na+ channels

      Correct Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that...

    Incorrect

    • A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that the tumour affects the tunica vaginalis. The tumour stage in this case is:

      Your Answer: Tis

      Correct Answer: T2

      Explanation:

      The primary tumour staging for testicular seminoma is as follows, according to AJCC guidelines:

      Tis: intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ)

      T1: tumour limited to testis/epididymis without vascular or lymphatic invasion; the tumour can invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis

      T2: tumour limited to testis/epididymis with vascular or lymphatic invasion or tumour extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis

      T3: tumour invading the spermatic cord, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion

      T4: tumour invading the scrotum, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.

      According to these guidelines, the tumour in this case has a T2 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath and persistent cough over the past 8 months. He reveals that in the 1960s he worked for several years as a boiler operator. Chest X-ray shows diffuse lung infiltrates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Explanation:

      Asbestosis is a chronic lung disease which leads to long-term respiratory complications and is caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibres. Symptoms due to long exposure to asbestos usually appear 10 to 40 years after initial exposure and include shortness of breath, cough, weight loss, clubbing of the fingers and chest pain. Typical chest X-ray findings include diffuse lung infiltrates that cause the appearance of shaggy heart borders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward...

    Incorrect

    • Enlargement of the spleen as seen in Gaucher's disease pushes the spleen downward and medially. What structure limits the straight-vertical-downward movement?

      Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz

      Correct Answer: Left colic flexure

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure (also known as the splenic flexure), is the point where the colon takes a sharp turn downwards. It is the point where the transverse colon ends and the descending colon begins. It is located immediately inferior to the spleen so an enlarged spleen must move medially to avoid this colic flexure.

      The left suprarenal gland is retroperitoneal.

      The Ligament of Treitz suspends the fourth part of the duodenum from the posterior abdominal wall.

      The stomach, pancreas and liver lie medial to the spleen and thus would not prevent a vertical downward movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that...

    Incorrect

    • A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that there was a transverse fracture of the upper end of the fibula. It was manifested clinically by inability to flex his foot at the ankle joint plus weak extension of the phalanges. What nerve is suspected to be injured in such a case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies the muscles allowing for flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, namely the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius muscles. The peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, and peroneus longus evert the foot, whereas the tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior invert the foot. Fibres of the deep peroneal nerve originate from L4, L5, and S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A tumour on the floor of the fourth ventricle is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A tumour on the floor of the fourth ventricle is most likely to compress which of the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The fourth ventricle, is a cavity of the brains ventricular system in which the cerebrospinal fluid is formed. This cavity is located behind the pons and upper half of the medulla oblongata. It extends from the cerebral aqueduct, to its connection to the third ventricle, and to the obex- which is the caudal tip of the fourth ventricle. The floor of the fourth ventricle consists of three parts – superior, intermediate and inferior. This inferior aspect of the floor of the fourth ventricle has the nucleus of the abducens nerve, CN VI which is looped over by the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum

      Explanation:

      The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones...

    Incorrect

    • Action potentials are used extensively by the nervous system to communicate between neurones and muscles or glands. What happens during the activation of a nerve cell membrane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium ions flow inward

      Explanation:

      During the generation of an action potential, the membrane gets depolarized which cause the voltage gated sodium channels to open and sodium diffuses inside the neuron, resulting in the membrane potential moving towards a positive value. This positive potential will then open the voltage gated potassium channels and cause more K+ to move out decreasing the membrane potential and restoring the membrane potential to its resting value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to result in an increased secretion of which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The hypophyseal portal system links the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. With the help of this system, the anterior pituitary receives releasing and inhibitory hormones from the hypothalamus and regulates the action of other endocrine glands. One of the inhibitory hormones carried by this system is the prolactin-inhibitory hormone. In the absence of this hormone which might occur in case of a blockage of the system, prolactin secretion increases to about three times normal levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The...

    Incorrect

    • A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior lobe

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.

      The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.

      The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.

      The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must...

    Incorrect

    • When inserting a chest drain anteriorly into the second intercostal space, one must identify the second costal cartilage by palpating which landmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is the site for identification of the second rib as the second rib is attached to the sternum at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which...

    Incorrect

    • Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo,...

    Incorrect

    • The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is...

    Incorrect

    • Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Phimosis is the inability to fully retract the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male. It can be physiological in infancy, in which it could be referred to as ‘developmental non-retractility of the foreskin. However, it is almost always pathological in older children and men. Causes include chronic inflammation (e.g. balanoposthitis), multiple catheterisations, or forceful foreskin retraction. One of the causes is chronic balanitis xerotica obliterans. It leads to development of a ring of indurated tissue near the tip of the prepuce, which prevents retraction. Contributory factors include infections, hormonal and inflammatory factors. The recommended treatment includes circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP is 72/30 mmhg, heart rate of 142 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood and his BP returned to 100/70 and his heart rate slowed to 90 beats/min. What decreased after transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood, this fluid resuscitation will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling which will result in the decreases TPR with an increased CO and cardiac filling pressures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old woman is suspected to have an ovarian cancer. Which tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman is suspected to have an ovarian cancer. Which tumour marker should be requested to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA-125

      Explanation:

      CA-125 is a protein that is used as a tumour marker. This substance is found in high concentration in patients with ovarian cancer. It is the only tumour marker recommended for clinical use in the diagnosis and management of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Incorrect

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First heart sound

      Explanation:

      In the cardiac cycle, the closing of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincides with the onset of ventricular systole. This event marks the beginning of the isovolumetric contraction phase, where the ventricles begin to contract, but the volume of blood in the ventricles remains the same because both the AV valves and the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) are closed. The closing of the AV valves produces the first heart sound, known as “S1” or “lub.”

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 53 year old women with a history of atrial fibrillation developed an...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year old women with a history of atrial fibrillation developed an acute abdomen. On laparoscopic examination her bowels appeared to be dusky to red-purple in colour and her mesenteric veins appeared to be patent. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wet gangrene

      Explanation:

      Infarction of the small bowel following a sudden and complete occlusion of the mesenteric artery can involve any portion of the bowel, whether small or a large. The splenic flexure is at most risk for infarction as it is the watershed area between the superior and inferior mesenteric vessels. Regardless of whether the arterial or the venous blood vessels are occluded, because of the blood reflow into the damaged portion, it will appear haemorrhagic. The bowel appearing congested at first and then becoming oedematous. If the artery is occluded then there will be a clear cut demarcation and in venous occlusion the dusky colour fades with the rest of the normal bowel. Wet gangrene is characteristic of ischaemic injury to the gut.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (1/4) 25%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Passmed