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  • Question 1 - The cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase are found in which part...

    Correct

    • The cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase are found in which part of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Body and fundus

      Explanation:

      Stomach can be divided in to different regions. Cardia, fundus, body, antrum and pylorus from proximal end to distal end respectively. Cells that secret the inactive form of pepsin or pepsinogen are chief cells and are abundant in the body (corpus) and the fundus region of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.Common lithium side effects may include:- dizziness, drowsiness;- tremors in your hands;- trouble walking;- dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;- nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;- cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;- rash; or.- blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      21
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function?

      Your Answer: Hemidesmosomes

      Correct Answer: Tight junctions

      Explanation:

      Tight junctions surround the apical margins of the epithelial cells such as in the intestinal mucosa and the choroid plexus. They are also important to the endothelial barrier function. They are made up of ridges that adhere to each other strongly at the cell junction, obliterating the space completely between the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete...

    Correct

    • In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete gastric lipase?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Explanation:

      Chief cells produce pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Parietal cells produce stomach acid and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      27.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - What is the most important source of heat production in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important source of heat production in the body?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Thermogenesis is the process by which organisms produce heat. Through skeletal muscle contraction, or shivering, ATP is converted into kinetic energy, some of which converts into heat. These muscle contractions produce about 70% of total body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      44.2
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Where are the baroreceptors of the great arteries located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the baroreceptors of the great arteries located?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: In the adventitia

      Explanation:

      Arterial baroreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses, and are formed by small nerve endings present in the adventitia of these vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      45.8
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      49
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Correct

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      91.7
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis… ...

    Correct

    • Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis…

      Your Answer: Occurs in the cytosol of developing red cells.

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol. Production of Hb continues in the cell throughout its early development from the proerythroblast to the reticulocyte in the bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      106.7
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Correct

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      27.6
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:

      Your Answer: Mutations in p53

      Correct Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA

      Explanation:

      80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      35.1
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which neurotransmitter is released from the postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic division? ...

    Correct

    • Which neurotransmitter is released from the postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic division?

      Your Answer: Noradrenalin

      Explanation:

      Noradrenalin Is the neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division. It is stored in granules at the sympathetic knobs. It Is a methyl derivative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      67.1
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following components regulate cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      99.8
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      96.3
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      29
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Correct

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      16.6
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer: Calcium absorption

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      62.9
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia?

      Your Answer: Renal failure

      Correct Answer: Ascaris

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilia can be idiopathic (primary) or, more commonly, secondary to another disease. In the Western World, allergic or atopic diseases are the most common causes, especially those of the respiratory or integumentary systems. In the developing world, parasites are the most common cause e.g. Ascaris

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      357.4
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - The Sinoatrial node in the majority of people is supplied by the? ...

    Correct

    • The Sinoatrial node in the majority of people is supplied by the?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      In 60% of people, the SA node is supplied by the right coronary artery branch and in 40% of the people by the left coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      41.6
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      51.8
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?...

    Correct

    • The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer: Tela choroidea

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      61.7
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria...

    Correct

    • Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      328.1
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes:

      Your Answer: Act as a ligand for serca pump to allow for Ca2+ re-sequestration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Binding to myosin after the power stroke to allow uncoupling of actin and myosin

      Explanation:

      After calcium binds to the troponin C, there is a conformational change in the structure of troponin I and tropomyosin, which moves out of the way and frees the site where myosin can bind to actin. This results in the formation of the cross linkage of the actin and myosin giving rise to the power stroke in the contraction phase. This occurs with the release of ADP. When ATP combines to this complex it breaks and the cycle repeats itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      181.2
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Somatostatin is responsible for? ...

    Correct

    • Somatostatin is responsible for?

      Your Answer: Decreased gastrin release

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone secreted from the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets. It causes the inhibition of gastrin (decreasing stomach acid production), CCK (decreasing gallbladder motility), gastrin inhibitory peptide and secretin. Gastrin production is also inhibited by secretin, GIP, VIP, glucagon and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      71.6
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which one of the following ECG findings is least associated with digoxin use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following ECG findings is least associated with digoxin use?

      Your Answer: Down-sloping ST depression

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Digoxin ECG features:•    ST depression (‘reverse tick’)•    flattened/inverted T waves•  Prolonged PR interval•    short QT interval•    arrhythmias e.g. AV block, bradycardia, ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation (for example paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with A-V block – so-called PAT with block) is said to be pathognomonic (i.e. diagnostic) of digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      44.8
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Correct

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      76.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent back pain that is unrelated to activity for the past several months. Laboratory findings show :WCC: 6.7 x 109/l (5.4 neutrophils, 1.2 lymphocytes and 0.2 monocytes)Haemoglobin: 11.2 g/dlhaematocrit: 33.3%MCV: 88 flPlatelet count: 89 x 109/l.The biochemistry shows:sodium 144 mmol/lpotassium 4.5 mmol/lchloride 100 mmol/lbicarbonate 26 mmol/lurea 14 mmol/lcreatinine 90 μmol/la glucose of 5.4 mmol/l.A CT scan of the spine reveals scattered 0.4 to 1.2 cm bright lesions in the vertebral bodies.Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Blood culture positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Serum prostate specific antigen of 35 microgram/l

      Explanation:

      Old age, persistent backache, weight loss, and osteosclerotic lesions make prostatic adenocarcinoma the most likely diagnosis. The sequelae include severe pain, pathological fractures, hypercalcemia and cord compression. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is detected by elevated levels of prostate specific antigen. Positive serology for borrelia burgdorferi would hint at Lyme disease which does not cause osteosclerotic bone lesions, neither would Neisseria gonorrhoeae have such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      68.5
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - In Argyll Robertson pupils… ...

    Correct

    • In Argyll Robertson pupils…

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      60.3
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is: ...

    Incorrect

    • During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is:

      Your Answer: 40 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 25 mmHg

      Explanation:

      During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is less than 30 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      36.6
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the closure of the ductus arteriosus during birth?

      Your Answer: Reduction of pulmonary vascular resistance

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Ductus arteriosus is kept open by the prostaglandin E2 which is a vasodilator. At birth the high levels of cyclooxygenase blocks the production of prostaglandins which results in the closure of the ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      58.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (3/3) 100%
Medicine (19/30) 63%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (3/8) 38%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (5/5) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
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