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  • Question 1 - In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions...

    Correct

    • In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions is converted to:

      Your Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Lactate can be used in two ways:Oxidation back to pyruvate by well-oxygenated muscle cells, heart cells, and brain cells. Pyruvate is then directly used to fuel the Krebs cycle orConversion to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver and release back into circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer: Seborrheic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Causes of hair loss include:

      • Dissecting cellulitis
      • Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      • Folliculitis
      • Secondary syphilis
      • Demodex folliculorum
      • Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).

      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce...

    Correct

    • The process whereby bacterial products interact with plasma factors and cells to produce agents that attract neutrophils to an infected area is called:

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      During an inflammatory process many cytokines are produced that act as chemokines to attract neutrophils to the site of inflammation. These include bacterial products, IL-8, C5a and LTB4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Two types of gallstones are: ...

    Correct

    • Two types of gallstones are:

      Your Answer: Calcium and cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol stones are the most common gallstones followed by calcium carbonate and bilirubinate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:

      Your Answer: Midline nuclei only

      Correct Answer: Specific relay nuclei

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Deamination

      Correct Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      90.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The following are synthesized in the liver EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are synthesized in the liver EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The liver is responsible for the mainstay of protein metabolism, synthesis as well as degradation. It is also responsible for a large part of amino acid synthesis. The liver plays a role in the production of clotting factors as well as red blood cell production. Some of the proteins synthesized by the liver include coagulation factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XIII, as well as protein C, protein S and antithrombin. The liver is a major site of production for thrombopoietin, a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the production of platelets by the bone marrow. The liver also produces albumin, the most abundant protein in blood serum and angiotensinogen. Cholecystokinin, previously called pancreozymin, is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Incorrect

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer: IgM

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure forms the major part of the sternocostal surface of the heart?

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      The anterior (sternocostal) surface is formed mainly by the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What does a deficiency of adenosine deaminase lead to? ...

    Correct

    • What does a deficiency of adenosine deaminase lead to?

      Your Answer: SCID

      Explanation:

      Severe combined immunodeficiency, SCID, also known as alymphocytosis, Glanzmann–Riniker syndrome, severe mixed immunodeficiency syndrome, and thymic alymphoplasia,[1] is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the disturbed development of functional T cells and B cells. Most cases of SCID are due to mutations in the gene encoding the common gamma chain (γc), a protein that is shared by the receptors for interleukins. The second most common form of SCID after X-SCID is caused by a defective enzyme, adenosine deaminase (ADA), necessary for the breakdown of purines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - HLA class III genes encode for ...

    Incorrect

    • HLA class III genes encode for

      Your Answer: HLA-e

      Correct Answer: Complement

      Explanation:

      HLAs corresponding to MHC class III encode components of the complement system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Major supplies of glycogen are found in …. ...

    Correct

    • Major supplies of glycogen are found in ….

      Your Answer: Liver and skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      The two major sites of glycogen storage are the liver and skeletal muscle. The concentration of glycogen is higher in the liver than in muscle however more glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle due to its greater mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair: ...

    Incorrect

    • Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair:

      Your Answer: Ecl cells and surface mucus cells

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells and chief cells

      Explanation:

      In the body of the stomach, the vagal postganglionic muscarinic nerves release acetylcholine(ACh) which stimulates parietal cell H+ secretion. Gastric chief cells are primarily activated by ACh. However the decrease in pH caused by activation of parietal cells further activates gastric chief cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin...

    Incorrect

    • The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin is:

      Your Answer: D1 deionodase

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidise

      Explanation:

      Thyroid peroxidase is an enzyme that is secreted into the thyroid colloid. It works by oxidizing iodide ions into iodine which are incorporated into thyroglobulin, in order to produce T3 and T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The basic taste “umami” is mediated by glutamate acting on a metabotropic receptor...

    Correct

    • The basic taste “umami” is mediated by glutamate acting on a metabotropic receptor named:

      Your Answer: mGluR4

      Explanation:

      Umami taste or savoury taste is one of the five basic tastes described as meaty or brothy. Umami taste receptors typically respond to Glutamate. Biochemical studies have identified the taste receptors responsible for the sense of umami as modified forms of mGluR4, mGluR1 and taste receptor type 1 (T1R1), all of which have been found in all regions of the tongue bearing taste buds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement is correct regarding mRNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding mRNA?

      Your Answer: The bases of mRNA consists of adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.

      Correct Answer: mRNAs are mainly found in the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell.

      Explanation:

      mRNA is transcribed from DNA and is carried to the cytosol to be translated. Hence it is mainly found in the cytosol and the nucleus of a cell. It is single stranded and contains the base uracil instead of thymine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a form of synaptic plasticity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a form of synaptic plasticity?

      Your Answer: Neurogenesis

      Correct Answer: Working memory

      Explanation:

      Synaptic plasticity is an important neurochemical foundation of working memory and generation of memory. Synaptic plasticity is the ability of synapses to strengthen or weaken over time in response to increases or decreases in their activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement. The cells of the liver…

      Your Answer: Deaminate amino acids to form NH+4 which is excreted as ammonium salts in the urine.

      Correct Answer: Help to maintain the normal blood glucose level.

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of vitamin D3 takes place in both the liver and in the kidneys. The liver is responsible for an intermediate step and final synthesis takes place in the kidneys. Immunoglobulins are manufactured by plasma cells in respective organs where there is antigen exposure. The liver plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose levels by converting excess glucose to glycogen and converting glycogen back to glucose in time of need. Hepatocytes have enzymes that can deactivate steroid hormones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - With regards to the Na+/K+ ATPase, which one of the following is correct?...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the Na+/K+ ATPase, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: 2 K+ released into the extracellular fluid

      Correct Answer: 3 Na+ released into the extracellular fluid

      Explanation:

      Na+/K+ pump or sodium–potassium pump is an enzyme found in the plasma membrane. This pumping is active (i.e. it uses energy from ATP) and is important for cell physiology. Its simple function is to pump 3 sodium ions out for every 2 potassium ions taken in and since they both have equal ionic charges, this creates a electrochemical gradient between a cell and its exterior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by: ...

    Correct

    • Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

      Your Answer: Chemokines

      Explanation:

      The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?...

    Correct

    • The hepatic plates in the liver parenchyma consist of how many cell layers?

      Your Answer: 1 – 2 cell layers

      Explanation:

      Hepatic plates in a hepatic lobule are arranged in 1-2 cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step. There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity. Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2. Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Describe the location of the SA node: ...

    Incorrect

    • Describe the location of the SA node:

      Your Answer: Found in the junction between the IVC and the right atrium

      Correct Answer: Junction of the SVC and right atrium

      Explanation:

      Anatomically the SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What type of intercellular connection found between cardiac muscle fibers allow for the...

    Correct

    • What type of intercellular connection found between cardiac muscle fibers allow for the spread of excitation from one cell to another?

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in-between the cells. They form low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?

      Your Answer: Tissue plasminogen activator

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’?

      Your Answer: Down syndrome

      Correct Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Non-disjunction can result in aneuploidy i.e. abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. It results due to uneven division of chromosomes in the meiosis 1 or 2 phase. All the above mentioned examples are of non-disjunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In the life cycle of plasmodium species: ...

    Correct

    • In the life cycle of plasmodium species:

      Your Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Strength of contraction without increase in muscle fiber length

      Explanation:

      When the strength of contraction increases without an increase in fiber length, the EF increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cell Biology (1/2) 50%
Medicine (13/30) 43%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Immunology (2/4) 50%
Gastrointestinal (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (2/4) 50%
Metabolism (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed