00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 85 year old male with a history of faecal impaction, who lived...

    Correct

    • A 85 year old male with a history of faecal impaction, who lived at a nursing-home presented with abdominal pain and distension, confusion and agitation. Which of the following is the first step of the management.

      Your Answer: Phosphate enema

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for this presentation is faecal impaction following constipation, which is common among old people who live in nursing-homes. There can be number of reason for constipation in old age, including medications, endocrine and metabolic diseases, neurologic disorders, myopathic disorders, dietary habits etc. Enemas are a way of removing impacted faeces, which helps rectal evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The nucleus ambiguus: ...

    Incorrect

    • The nucleus ambiguus:

      Your Answer: Provides parasympathetic control of the parotid gland

      Correct Answer: Regulates swallowing, phonation and parasympathetic supply to the heart via CN IX, X and XI

      Explanation:

      Nucleus Ambiguus is a group of large motor neurons found deep in the medullary reticular formation. It contains cell bodies of nerves that are responsible for the innervation of muscles of speech and swallowing which are located in the soft palate, pharynx and larynx. Additionally, it contains cholinergic preganglionic parasympathetic neurons of the heart via CN X, IX and XI

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Loss of thoracic kyphosis

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease. The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true:

      Your Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 75% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Correct Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Explanation:

      50% of the children will be effected from parents who are heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder. An allele can be dominant or recessive. Individuals, meanwhile, can be homozygous or heterozygous: individuals who are homozygous for a certain gene carry two copies of the same allele. individuals who are heterozygous for a certain gene carry two different alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - von Willebrand factor stabilises which clotting factor? ...

    Correct

    • von Willebrand factor stabilises which clotting factor?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand factor’s primary function is binding to other proteins, in particular factor VIII, and it is important in platelet adhesion to wound sites. It is not an enzyme and, thus, has no catalytic activity. Factor VIII degrades rapidly when not bound to vWF. Factor VIII is released from vWF by the action of thrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts act in the distal convoluted tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions is procoagulant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is procoagulant?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation of one of the clotting factors in the blood, Factor V. This mutation makes Factor V resistant to inactivation by activated Protein C, which normally helps to regulate clot formation. As a result, individuals with Factor V Leiden are at increased risk of developing abnormal blood clots (thrombophilia), making it a procoagulant condition.

      The other conditions listed are associated with bleeding tendencies rather than increased clotting:

      • Afibrinogenemia: A rare genetic disorder where there is a complete lack of fibrinogen, leading to bleeding problems.
      • Hemophilia: A group of inherited bleeding disorders where blood does not clot properly due to the lack of sufficient blood-clotting proteins (factors VIII or IX).
      • Hypothrombinemia: A condition characterized by low levels of prothrombin, leading to increased bleeding.
      • Christmas disease (Hemophilia B): A form of hemophilia caused by a deficiency of factor IX, resulting in a bleeding tendency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents? ...

    Incorrect

    • In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections and two downward deflections have been described: The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Medicine (4/9) 44%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed