00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - The end- diastolic ventricular volume is about? ...

    Correct

    • The end- diastolic ventricular volume is about?

      Your Answer: 130 ml

      Explanation:

      The end diastolic volume in a healthy individual is about 130 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Preload: ...

    Incorrect

    • Preload:

      Your Answer: Is the resistance against which the blood is expelled

      Correct Answer: Is the degree to which the myocardium is stretched before is contracts

      Explanation:

      Preload is end diastolic volume. It is the degree to which the heart muscle fiber is stretched when it fills up completely just before the heart contracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following transporters is involved in facilitated diffusion? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following transporters is involved in facilitated diffusion?

      Your Answer: GLUT2

      Explanation:

      GLUT 2 is a bidirectional transporter, allowing glucose to flow in 2 directions via facilitated diffusion. Is expressed by renal tubular cells, liver cells and pancreatic beta cells. It is also present in the basolateral membrane of the small intestine epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on...

    Correct

    • Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on the microvilli of the intestinal epithelium?

      Your Answer: Hydrolases

      Explanation:

      There are certain enzymes which are part of the brush border cells including hydrolases also known as the brush border hydrolases. They perform the final step in digestion of certain nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilitic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except:

      Your Answer: The sling fibers of the stomach

      Correct Answer: Peristaltic movements of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The lower oesophageal sphincter contracts preventing reflux of acid into the oesophagus. The sling muscles of the stomach, the crura of the diaphragm and the phreno-oesophageal ligament all play an important role in constricting the lower portion of the oesophagus and preventing reflux. Peristaltic movements do not stop the acid reflux.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      Trabecular, spongy or cancellous bone. It is located inside the cortical bone and makes up around 20% of all bone in the body. It is made of spicules or plates with a high surface to volume ratio, where many cells sit on the surface of the end plates. It receives its nutrients from the extracellular fluid (ECF), exchanging about 10 mmol of calcium every 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Sleep

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output. Anxiety, excitement and pregnancy will increase the cardiac output. Standing from a lying position will decrease the cardiac output transiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Hemopoietic stem cells - basophils

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) or hemocytoblasts are the stem cells that give rise to all the other blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They give rise to both the myeloid and lymphoid lineages of blood cells. (Myeloid cells include monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, dendritic cells, and megakaryocytes or platelets. Lymphoid cells include T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Collecting duct

      Correct Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperbaric oxygen

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations. Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.Adverse effects:Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned. Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A). As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced. Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?

      Your Answer: Purkinje, stellate, basket

      Correct Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme?

      Your Answer: Amylase

      Correct Answer: Pepsinogen 1

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice, composed of the secretions of both ductal and acinar cells, is made up of the following digestive enzymes:Trypsinogen, which is an inactive(zymogenic) protease that, once activated in the duodenum into trypsin, breaks down proteins at the basic amino acids. Trypsinogen is activated via the duodenal enzyme enterokinase into its active form trypsin.Colipase is a protein co-enzyme required for optimal enzyme activity of pancreatic lipase. It is secreted by the pancreas in an inactive form, procolipase, which is activated in the intestinal lumen by trypsin.Chymotrypsinogen, which is an inactive (zymogenic) protease that, once activated by duodenal enterokinase, breaks down proteins at their aromatic amino acids. Chymotrypsinogen can also be activated by trypsin.Carboxypeptidase, which is a protease that takes off the terminal amino acid group from a proteinSeveral elastases that degrade the protein elastin and some other proteins.Pancreatic lipase that degrades triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.Sterol esterasePhospholipaseSeveral nucleases that degrade nucleic acids, like DNase and RNase.Pancreatic amylase that breaks down starch and glycogen which are alpha-linked glucose polymers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Platelets are stored in this body organ. ...

    Correct

    • Platelets are stored in this body organ.

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Megakaryocyte and platelet production is regulated by thrombopoietin. Each megakaryocyte produces between 1,000 and 3,000 platelets during its lifetime. An average of 1011 platelets are produced daily in a healthy adult. Reserve platelets are stored in the spleen, and are released when needed by splenic contraction induced by the sympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: Mutation in the Rb gene leads to retinoblastoma

      Correct Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to: ...

    Incorrect

    • The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to:

      Your Answer: Low hydrogen an high carbon dioxide

      Correct Answer: High hydrogen and high carbon dioxide

      Explanation:

      The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds mainly to high pH levels and carbon dioxide levels. Baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic body respond mainly to oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressure in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Where do the meningeal veins lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the meningeal veins lie?

      Your Answer: Exosteal layer of the dura

      Correct Answer: Endosteal layer of the dura

      Explanation:

      Meningeal veins lie in the endosteal layer of the dura. The veins lie lateral to the arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except:

      Your Answer: Alpha-amylase

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli which extend from the cell known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes. All these enzymes except alfa amylase are brush border enzymes. Alfa amylase is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Cyclic AMP activates the following enzyme ...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclic AMP activates the following enzyme

      Your Answer: Adenylyl cyclase

      Correct Answer: Protein Kinase A

      Explanation:

      Cyclic AMP works by activating protein kinase A (PKA, or cAMP-dependent protein kinase). Protein kinase A can also phosphorylate specific proteins that bind to promoter regions of DNA, causing increases in transcription.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      109.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomere transcriptase

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is correctly paired? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correctly paired?

      Your Answer: I cells : IgF – i

      Correct Answer: F cells : pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic polypeptide is secreted by F-cells, which represent the smallest proportion of islet cells in the pancreas. These cells establish the embryological origin of the pancreas. Pancreatic polypeptide regulates endocrine and exocrine activities by the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding it difficult to find the right words to explain his thoughts. Doctors have examined him, and everything else appears to be normal. They have also found that his comprehension is good. From the list of options, choose the anatomical site which in this instance, is most likely affected.

      Your Answer: Wernicke’s Area

      Correct Answer: Broca’s Area

      Explanation:

      The combination of good comprehension but poor speech quality in this patient is consistent with damage to the Broca’s area. The Wernicke’s area is responsible for the understanding of speech, and so is not consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is an example of a ketone body? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?

      Your Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The position of the kidneys besides the vertebral column retroperitoneally spans levels: ...

    Incorrect

    • The position of the kidneys besides the vertebral column retroperitoneally spans levels:

      Your Answer: T11 – L1

      Correct Answer: T12 – L3

      Explanation:

      The asymmetry within the abdominal cavity, caused by the position of the liver, typically results in the right kidney being slightly lower and smaller than the left, and being placed slightly more to the middle than the left kidney. The left kidney is approximately at the vertebral level T12 to L3, and the right is slightly lower.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Generalized vasoconstrictors include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Generalized vasoconstrictors include:

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide, carbon monoxide, natriuretic peptide

      Correct Answer: Norepinephrine, endothelin, angiotensin ii

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, angiotensin II, adrenaline and endothelin are generalized vasoconstrictors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly...

    Incorrect

    • Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly during:

      Your Answer: Atrial systole

      Correct Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      The sub endocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure from contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The primary auditory cortex is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary auditory cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 42

      Correct Answer: Brodmann area 41

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis on its own does not lead to left ventricular dilatation and hence a displaced apex beat. Thus a displaced apex beat is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other options occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts are involved in the control of vital functions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reticulospinal

      Explanation:

      Reticulospinal tract pass down from the reticular formation of the mid brain, pons and medulla. It descends in the lateral white column. Both sets of fibers enter the anterior grey column and may facilitate or inhibit the gamma and alpha neurons. By this means the reticulospinal tract controls voluntary and reflex activities. It also contains the descending autonomic fiber, thus providing a pathway for the hypothalamus to control the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antioxidants

      Explanation:

      Unlike superoxide, which can be detoxified by superoxide dismutase, the hydroxyl radical cannot be eliminated by an enzymatic reaction but it is believed can be counteracted by antioxidants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show:Hb: 130g/lPlatelets: 359*109/lWBC: 10*109/lCRP: 89mg/lWhich of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts… ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are necessary for any bile acid secretion by hepatocytes.

      Explanation:

      Bile salts stimulate bile secretion by the liver. Bile salts do not have an enzymatic action on digestion of fat but rather emulsify fat for the action of enzymes secreted mainly by the pancreas. Bile salts are polar cholesterol derivatives and are not derived from amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides? ...

    Incorrect

    • The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1:4α linkages

      Explanation:

      Alfa amylase hydrolyses the α (1-4) glyosidic bonds in amylose and amylopectin and leave primarily maltose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.Uses- Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage- Acromegaly- Carcinoid syndrome- Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery- VIPomas- Refractory diarrhoeaAdverse effectsGallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)Other options:- Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.- Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.- Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis- Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Cell membrane proteins may act as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cell membrane proteins may act as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Membrane proteins perform a variety of functions including:Membrane receptor proteins relay or carry signals between the cell’s internal and external environments.Transport proteins move molecules and ions (ionic channels) across the membrane. Membrane enzymes may have many activities, such as oxidoreductase, transferase or hydrolase andCell adhesion molecules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult.Her blood investigations revealed:White cell count: 13 × 109/lHaemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dlActivated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): NormalPlatelets: 140 × 109/lINR: 6.0Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal.Other investigations:An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal.An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and observe

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate. Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which afferent information is carried by the dorsal column? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which afferent information is carried by the dorsal column?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proprioception/ discriminative touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior grey column (dorsal column) is responsible for carrying the sensation of proprioception, two-point discrimination, and vibration to the nucleus proprius, situated anterior to the substantia gelatinosa throughout the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Normally the portal venous pressure is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normally the portal venous pressure is about:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5mmhg

      Explanation:

      Under normal physiological conditions, the pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver, typically ranges around 5-10 mmHg. Pressures significantly higher than this range can indicate portal hypertension, which can be associated with liver diseases such as cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed...

    Incorrect

    • The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell...

    Incorrect

    • Within the hypothalamus, the dopamine-secreting neurones of the intrahypothalamic system have their cell bodies in which nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Arcuate nucleus dopaminergic neurons consist of a single group of neurons that project to the median eminence where they release dopamine into the hypophyseal portal circulation to inhibit pituitary prolactin secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Eosinophils provide immunity against ...

    Incorrect

    • Eosinophils provide immunity against

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multi cellular parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle relaxation ahead of the stimulus

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Nitric oxide causes relaxation of smooth muscles ahead of the stimulus. Clinically it is used as a potent vasodilator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are analogues of pyrophosphate, a molecule which decreases demineralisation in bone. They inhibit osteoclasts by reducing recruitment and promoting apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Explanation:

      The quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Where is thyroglobulin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is thyroglobulin produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrocytes

      Explanation:

      Thyroglobulin, or Tg, is a protein that functions as the precursor to thyroid hormones. It is synthesized by thyrocytes and then secreted into the colloid. It also functions as a negative-feedback regulator of thyroid hormone biosynthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced...

    Incorrect

    • H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced with the help of which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase ii

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to bicarbonate and protons (or vice versa). This is a reversible reaction that takes place in the gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the base of the crypts

      Explanation:

      Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 62 year old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is walking. She is examined and is found to have pyramidal weakness of her left lower leg. She also has reduced pain and temperature sensation on her right leg and right side of her torso up to the umbilicus. Her joint position sense is also impaired in her left big toe but is found to be normal elsewhere. She has definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Where is the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      In Brown-Sequard syndrome, there is paralysis and loss of proprioception, which occurs on the same (ipsilateral) side of the body, as the lesion. Loss of pain and temperature sensation, therefore, occurs on the opposite (contralateral) side of the body as the lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AV node

      Explanation:

      AV node is located at the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Incorrect

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - An important hormone controlling the differentiation of monocytes to osteoclasts, by inhibiting the...

    Incorrect

    • An important hormone controlling the differentiation of monocytes to osteoclasts, by inhibiting the RANKL/ RANK interaction is called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoprotegerin

      Explanation:

      Osteoprotegerin, also known as osteoclastogenesis inhibitory factor (OCIF) is a glycoprotein that acts as a cytokine receptor. It works as a decoy receptor for the receptor activator of nuclear factor-kappaB ligand (RANKL)/osteoclast differentiation factor, thus inhibiting the differentiation of osteoclasts, which are capable of resorbing bone. Osteoprotegerin has been proposed as a therapeutic agent for osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is a sympathetic neurotransmitter which increases the heart rate. During atrial fibrillation the atria is contracting at more than 200 beats/min. Acetylcholine is a parasympathetic neurotransmitter decreasing the heart rate. Digital also depresses the conduction at the AV conduction. Vagal discharge and occulocardiac reflux decrease the heart rate and convert the tachycardia into normal sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into an amino acid sequence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide. This is known as translation and follows after the process transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - The following are synthesized in the liver EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are synthesized in the liver EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The liver is responsible for the mainstay of protein metabolism, synthesis as well as degradation. It is also responsible for a large part of amino acid synthesis. The liver plays a role in the production of clotting factors as well as red blood cell production. Some of the proteins synthesized by the liver include coagulation factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XIII, as well as protein C, protein S and antithrombin. The liver is a major site of production for thrombopoietin, a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the production of platelets by the bone marrow. The liver also produces albumin, the most abundant protein in blood serum and angiotensinogen. Cholecystokinin, previously called pancreozymin, is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 75 year old man was brought to the clinic by his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately he has lost interest in activities he previously enjoyed. His wife is worried and claims he's generally withdrawn. What would exclude depression in favour of dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is not a usual symptom of depression. A depressed patient is usually capable of maintaining control of his body sphincters. In dementia, however, urinary incontinence is an important and late symptom of the disease, non-related to any urinary tract pathology. It is rather related to the cognitive impairment caused by dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - The AV Node: ...

    Incorrect

    • The AV Node:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decelerates impulses passing to the ventricles

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx. The depolarization continues to conduct slowly through the atrioventricular (AV) node. The AV node is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum. This is small and bean-shaped. The atrial conductive system is organized so that the cardiac impulse does not travel from the atria into the ventricles too rapidly; this delay allows the atria to empty before ventricular contraction begins. It is the AV node and its adjacent conductive fibers that delay this transmission into the ventricles. Conduction through the AV Node is represented on the ECG by the PR interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which statement is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Translation begins when the triplet (UGA) encoding for methionine is encountered.

      Explanation:

      Translation being when the codon for methionine is encountered which is AUG not UGA. This process is known as initiation. All the other options are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 74 year old man presents with 12 kg weight loss and persistent back pain that is unrelated to activity for the past several months. Laboratory findings show :WCC: 6.7 x 109/l (5.4 neutrophils, 1.2 lymphocytes and 0.2 monocytes)Haemoglobin: 11.2 g/dlhaematocrit: 33.3%MCV: 88 flPlatelet count: 89 x 109/l.The biochemistry shows:sodium 144 mmol/lpotassium 4.5 mmol/lchloride 100 mmol/lbicarbonate 26 mmol/lurea 14 mmol/lcreatinine 90 μmol/la glucose of 5.4 mmol/l.A CT scan of the spine reveals scattered 0.4 to 1.2 cm bright lesions in the vertebral bodies.Which of the following additional laboratory test findings is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum prostate specific antigen of 35 microgram/l

      Explanation:

      Old age, persistent backache, weight loss, and osteosclerotic lesions make prostatic adenocarcinoma the most likely diagnosis. The sequelae include severe pain, pathological fractures, hypercalcemia and cord compression. Prostatic adenocarcinoma is detected by elevated levels of prostate specific antigen. Positive serology for borrelia burgdorferi would hint at Lyme disease which does not cause osteosclerotic bone lesions, neither would Neisseria gonorrhoeae have such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the anion gap?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the anion gap?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: (Na + K) – (HCO3 + Cl)

      Explanation:

      The anion gap is the difference between the measured cations (positively charged ions) and the measured anions (negatively charged ions) in serum, plasma, or urine. The magnitude of this difference in the serum is often calculated in medicine when attempting to identify the cause of metabolic acidosis. Anion Gap = ([Na+] + [K+]) − ([Cl−] + [HCO−3])

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Number of hormones and neurotransmitters can stimulate and inhibit pancreatic exocrine secretion. Cholecystokinin, secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide and substance P stimulate pancreatic secretion. Pancreatic polypeptide, somatostatin inhibit pancreatic secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      The following are conditions commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum:

      Inflammatory bowel disease:

      • Ulcerative colitis
      • Crohn’s disease

      Arthritides:

      • Rheumatoid arthritis
      • Seronegative arthritis

      Haematological disease:

      • Myelocytic leukaemia
      • Hairy cell leukaemia
      • Myelofibrosis
      • Myeloid metaplasia
      • Monoclonal gammopathy

      Autoinflammatory disease:

      • Pyogenic sterile arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and acne syndrome (PAPA syndrome)
      • Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe : primary somatosensory cortex

      Explanation:

      Parietal lobe: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. It is responsible for processing sensory information from the body.

      Frontal lobe: The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe also contains the premotor cortex, which is involved in planning movements. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, not the frontal lobe.

      Temporal lobe: The primary auditory cortex is located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe. The primary motor and premotor cortices are located in the frontal lobe, not the temporal lobe.

      Occipital lobe: The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe, not the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2 weeks that has not responded to antibiotics. Lately he has developed an onset of new range of symptoms that are linked to his HLA B27 positivity. Which of the following signs is not related to Reiter's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A mild fever with a generalised macular rash

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. Dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - All valves are closed in which phase of the cardiac cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • All valves are closed in which phase of the cardiac cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.The first stage, diastole, is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. The second stage, atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle.The third stage, isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. The fourth stage, ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. During the fifth stage, isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following pairing is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pairing is correct:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex virus is likely the most common cause of Mollaret’s meningitis, and, in worse case scenarios, can lead to a potentially fatal case of herpes simplex encephalitis. The eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8 causes Kaposi’s sarcoma and Herpes simplex type 2 is responsible for most primary genital herpes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department. Her mother claims that she has been 'staring' for the past few hours but has now developed abnormal head movements and has gone 'cross-eyed'. On examination, the patient's neck is extended and positioned to the right. Her eyes are deviated upwards and are slightly converged. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is an oculogyric crisis, that is most appropriately managed with procyclidine or benztropine (antimuscarinic). An oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions.Features include:Restlessness, agitationInvoluntary upward deviation of the eyesCauses:PhenothiazinesHaloperidolMetoclopramidePostencephalitic Parkinson’s diseaseManagement:Intravenous antimuscarinic agents like benztropine or procyclidine, alternatively diphenhydramine or ethopropazine maybe used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction and stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

      Explanation:

      tPA is a serine protease involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It functions by converting plasminogen, an inactive precursor, into plasmin, an active enzyme. Plasmin then degrades fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, leading to clot dissolution. This mechanism is particularly valuable in the treatment of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and ischemic stroke, where timely dissolution of the clot can restore blood flow to affected tissues and reduce damage.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collagen fibers underlying the endothelium

      Explanation:

      The contact activation (intrinsic) pathway begins with formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and FXII (Hageman factor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breasts: stimulation of lobular and alveolar development

      Explanation:

      Progesterone is a sex hormone which affects mainly the reproductive system. In the breasts, it mediates the lobuloalveolar maturation to allow for milk production; this is done in conjunction with prolactin. It acts to maintain female reproductive and sex characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one...

    Incorrect

    • β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which inhibitor of gastric enzyme secretion is released by the presence of fat...

    Incorrect

    • Which inhibitor of gastric enzyme secretion is released by the presence of fat in the jejunum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptide yy

      Explanation:

      Peptide yy is secreted from the jejunum due to the presence of fat. It inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epinephrine secreting cells

      Explanation:

      Chromaffin cells, also known as pheochromocytes, are cells located in the adrenal medulla which specialize in the synthesis, storage, and secretion of catecholamines: 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine is released into the bloodstream. For this reason, they are considered to be neuroendocrine cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with complaints suggestive of erectile dysfunction. He also provides a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is under treatment. The GP decides to start him on sildenafil citrate. Which of the following medications may contraindicate the use of sildenafil in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      The use of nitrates and nicorandil concomitantly with sildenafil citrate is contraindicated.Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following is true for P 53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P 53:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strength of contraction without increase in muscle fiber length

      Explanation:

      When the strength of contraction increases without an increase in fiber length, the EF increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - When the heart rate is increased (to pathological levels) which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • When the heart rate is increased (to pathological levels) which of the following is correct when comparing the duration of diastole to systole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is shortened to a greater degree

      Explanation:

      The duration of systole is more fixed than the duration of diastole. When the heart rate increases the timing of the systole remains more or less the same however diastole decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which one of the following is true about bone marrow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true about bone marrow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At birth the bone marrow is entirely red marrow and is converted to yellow marrow with age

      Explanation:

      The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells. Red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells arise in red marrow. Both types of bone marrow contain numerous blood vessels and capillaries. At birth, all bone marrow is red. With age, more and more of it is converted to the yellow type; only around half of adult bone marrow is red.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Dietary starch is mainly: ...

    Incorrect

    • Dietary starch is mainly:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amylopectin

      Explanation:

      Dietary starch consists of two types of molecules: the linear and helical amylose and the branched amylopectin. Starch generally contains 20 to 25% amylose and 75 to 80% amylopectin by weight but depends in the plant. Glycogen, the glucose store of animals, is a more branched version of amylopectin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - The energy needed for glycogen synthesis comes from which compound? ...

    Incorrect

    • The energy needed for glycogen synthesis comes from which compound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: UTP

      Explanation:

      Glycogen synthesis is, unlike its breakdown, endergonic—it requires the input of energy. Energy for glycogen synthesis comes from uridine triphosphate (UTP)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice. Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities. Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Habituation… ...

    Incorrect

    • Habituation…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a simple form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is repeated many times

      Explanation:

      It is a simple form of learning where an organism decreases or ceases it’s response to a certain stimuli after repeated presentation. The organisms learns to stop responding to a stimulus which is no longer biologically relevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning S3, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coincide with atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      A third heart sound also called a ventricular gallop occurs at the beginning of diastole after S2 and is lower in pitch than S1 or S2 as it is not of valvular origin. The third heart sound is benign in youth, some trained athletes, and sometimes in pregnancy but if it re-emerges later in life it may signal cardiac problems, such as a failing left ventricle as in dilated congestive heart failure (CHF). S3 is thought to be caused by the oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles initiated by blood rushing in from the atria. The reason the third heart sound does not occur until the middle third of diastole is probably that during the early part of diastole, the ventricles are not filled sufficiently to create enough tension for reverberation. It may also be a result of tensing of the chordae tendineae during rapid filling and expansion of the ventricle. In other words, an S3 heart sound indicates increased volume of blood within the ventricle. An S3 heart sound is best heard with the bell-side of the stethoscope (used for lower frequency sounds). A left-sided S3 is best heard in the left lateral decubitus position and at the apex of the heart, which is normally located in the 5th left intercostal space at the midclavicular line. A right-sided S3 is best heard at the lower-left sternal border. The way to distinguish between a left and right-sided S3 is to observe whether it increases in intensity with inhalation or exhalation. A right-sided S3 will increase on inhalation, while a left-sided S3 will increase on exhalation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic clinical finding of opioid poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Opioid poisoning is classically associated with pinpoint pupils, reduced respiratory rate, bradycardia, drowsiness and coma. Hypothermia is a feature of barbiturate poisoning, while sweating and lacrimation are seen in cases of opiate withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which one of the following will increase an individual’s appetite? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following will increase an individual’s appetite?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Ghrelin is a hormone which exerts a strong influence on hunger and energy balance. It helps regulate appetite by being secreted when the stomach is empty, to stimulate hunger. When the stomach is filled, its secretion stops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      Falx cerebri is a sickle cell fold of dura between the two hemispheres. Its posterior part blends with the superior part of the tentorium cerebelli. The superior sagittal sinus runs in its upper fixed margin, the inferior sagittal sinus in the free concave margin and the straight sinus along its attachment to the tentorium cerebelli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Where does most fat digestion begin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does most fat digestion begin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine (in the duodenum). The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increase in after load

      Explanation:

      Cardiac oxygen consumption is directly related to the amount of tension that develops in the ventricles. It is increased by an increased size of heart, increased afterload, increased contractility and increased heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left atrium

      Explanation:

      Myxomas are the most common type of primary heart tumour. The tumour is derived from multipotential mesenchymal cells and may cause a ball valve-type obstruction. About 75% of myxomas occur in the left atrium of the heart, usually beginning in the wall that divides the two upper chambers of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and blood tests are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV 12mg adenosine

      Explanation:

      For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. In adults the recommended first dose of intravenous adenosine is 6 mg. The dose is administered rapidly and then followed by a saline flush. Adenosine is only present in the circulation for about 5 seconds, so it is an excellent drug for diagnosis and treatment. If there was a response to adenosine but it was not long lasting, an additional dose of 12 mg of adenosine intravenously can be attempted. Doses greater than 12 mg are not recommended. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below: pH - 7.28pCO2 - 3.5 kPapO2 - 15.9 kPaNa+ - 139 mmol/LK+ - 4.5 mmol/LBicarbonate - 11 mmol/LChloride - 113 mmol/LLactate - 13.6 mmol/LKeeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire. Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate. Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.Other options:- Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised. – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed. – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.Note:Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymesClinical presentation:Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almondsAcute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusionChronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:Supportive measures: 100% oxygenDefinitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycaemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase

      Explanation:

      Different Oral Hypoglycaemic Agents (OHAs) and their respective mechanism(s) of action include:• Sulfonylureas (such as, glipizide, gliclazide, glimepiride) – bind to ATP sensitive Potassium channels (K – ATP channels) in the 𝝱 cells of the islets of the pancreas. Inhibition of these channels lead to an altered resting membrane potential in these cells causing an influx of calcium which increases insulin secretion.• Meglitinides (like Repaglinide) through a different receptor, they similarly regulate K – ATP channels thereby causing an increase in insulin secretion.• Biguanides (e.g., Metformin) increase the hepatic AMP-activated protein kinase activity leading to reduced gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis and increased insulin-mediated uptake of glucose in muscles. (it doesn’t increase insulin secretion)• Thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone, pioglitazone) bind to PPAR-𝝲 and increase peripheral uptake of glucose and decrease hepatic glucose production.• α-Glucosidase inhibitors (such as acarbose, miglitol, voglibose) competitively inhibit α-glucosidase enzymes in the intestine that digest the dietary starch thus, inhibiting the polysaccharide reabsorption as well as metabolism of sucrose to glucose and fructose.• DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin, saxagliptin, vildagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin) prolong the action of glucagon-like peptide. This leads to inhibition of glucagon release, increase in insulin secretion and a decrease in gastric emptying leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels.• SGLT2 inhibitors (dapagliflozin and canagliflozin) inhibit glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubules of the renal glomeruli leading to glycosuria which in-turn reduces blood glucose levels.Note: Side effects of pioglitazone are weight gain, pedal oedema, bone loss and precipitation of congestive cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Features of carbon monoxide toxicity- Headache: 90% of cases- Nausea and vomiting: 50%- Vertigo: 50%- Confusion: 30%- Subjective weakness: 20%- Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathTreatment:Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Endolymph in the inner ear is rich in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Endolymph in the inner ear is rich in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: K

      Explanation:

      Cochlear fluids namely endolymph and perilymph have different compositions. Perilymph is a typical extracellular fluid, with ionic composition comparable to plasma or cerebrospinal fluid. The main cation is sodium. Endolymph is a totally unique extracellular fluid, with an ion composition unlike that which is found anywhere else in the body. The major cation in the endolymph is potassium and there is virtually no sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: α fiber

      Explanation:

      α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should...

    Incorrect

    • In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 200 J

      Explanation:

      Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features...

    Incorrect

    • Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP) classically has three upward deflections and two downward deflections. The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling. The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - There will be a proportion of people in a population who have the...

    Incorrect

    • There will be a proportion of people in a population who have the given condition, disease or attribute at a specified point in time or over a specified period of time. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence refers to the total number of cases of a particular disease or condition present in a population at a specific point in time or over a specified period. It provides a measure of how widespread the disease or condition is within the population.

      Specificity and sensitivity are terms used to describe the accuracy of diagnostic tests.

      Probability refers to the likelihood of an event occurring.

      Incidence is a measure of how commonly or frequently a disease occurs in a specified population over a period by providing a quick measurement of new disease diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines

      Explanation:

      The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - B1 adrenergic stimulation produces: ...

    Incorrect

    • B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify: ...

    Incorrect

    • When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

      Explanation:

      The C wave signifies a rise in the atrial pressure during isovolumetric contraction due to the tricuspid valve bulging into the atria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - What is the function of the pro-apoptotic Bcl-2 family of proteins, Bax and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of the pro-apoptotic Bcl-2 family of proteins, Bax and Bak?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Form permissive pores in the mitochondrial membrane

      Explanation:

      The pro-apoptotic proteins in the BCL-2 family, including Bax and Bak, normally act on the mitochondrial membrane to promote permeabilization and release of cytochrome C and ROS, that are important signals in the apoptosis cascade. Growing evidence suggests that activated BAX and/or Bak form an oligomeric pore, MAC in the mitochondrial outer membrane. This results in the release of cytochrome c and other pro-apoptotic factors from the mitochondria, often referred to as mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, leading to activation of caspases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - One of the functions of the spleen with regards to red blood cells...

    Incorrect

    • One of the functions of the spleen with regards to red blood cells is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To filter and remove aged and abnormal red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The spleen plays important roles in regard to red blood cells (also referred to as erythrocytes) and the immune system. It removes old red blood cells and holds a reserve of blood, which can be valuable in case of haemorrhagic shock, and also recycles iron. As a part of the mononuclear phagocyte system, it metabolizes haemoglobin removed from senescent erythrocytes. The globin portion of haemoglobin is degraded to its constitutive amino acids, and the haem portion is metabolized to bilirubin, which is removed in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - Antibiotic resistance may happen by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antibiotic resistance may happen by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: By enzymes which inactivate the drug

      Explanation:

      The three main mechanisms of antibiotic resistance are, enzymatic degradation of antibacterial drugs, alteration of bacterial proteins that are antimicrobial targets, and changes in membrane permeability to antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine, histamine, bradykinin, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and shear stress on the endothelial cells causing the release of NO. NO is formed from arginine and causes vasodilatation of the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation...

    Incorrect

    • Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation of covalent cross-linkages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor XIIIa

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII or fibrin stabilizing factor is an enzyme of the blood coagulation system that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of this factor (FXIIID) affects clot stability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - The pressure in the sinusoids is normally: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pressure in the sinusoids is normally:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower than portal venous pressure

      Explanation:

      The direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids. Thus, he pressure of sinusoids should be lower than the pressure of he portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture.What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics. It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.Other side effects include:Hypotension, tachycardiaFever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)Appetite increaseConstipationHeartburnWeight gainExtrapyramidal symptomsAgranulocytosisNeuroleptic malignant syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac plexus

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - During anaerobic glycolysis, the net production of ATP is: ...

    Incorrect

    • During anaerobic glycolysis, the net production of ATP is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Anaerobic glycolysis is the transformation of glucose to lactate when limited amounts of oxygen (O2) are available. Anaerobic glycolysis is only an effective means of energy production during short, intense exercise, providing energy for a period ranging from 10 seconds to 2 minutes. It produces 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Aortic insufficiency, is often due to the aortic root dilation, which is idiopathic in over 80% of cases, but otherwise may result from aging, syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Bechet’s disease, reactive arthritis and systemic hypertension. Additionally, aortic insufficiency has been linked to the use of some medications and other potential causes that affect the valve directly including Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, ankylosing spondylitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. In acute cases of aortic insufficiency, the main causes are infective endocarditis, aortic dissection or trauma. Dilated cardiomyopathy is associated with the development of mitral regurgitation, not aortic regurgitation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes

      Explanation:

      There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding transcription of DNA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A gene is always read in the 3’-5’ orientation and at 3’ promoter sites.

      Explanation:

      In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes RNA polymerase acts in the 5′-3′ direction and hence the RNA is transcribed in this direction. The mRNA produced is immature as it has introns as well as exons presents. It undergoes a process known as splicing to remove the exons and then interacts with the ribosomes to form proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN IX

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic presynaptic nerve fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) synapse in the otic ganglion and the postsynaptic parasympathetic nerve fibers pass to the parotid gland via the auriculotemporal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - In the absence of insulin: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the absence of insulin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose uptake by most of the brain is normal

      Explanation:

      Although it is known that insulin levels affect glucose uptake, oxidation and storage in peripheral tissues, its role in the brain isn’t as clear. However, studies have shown that bulk brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin. Glucose transport into the neurons is GLUT3 dependent, and its transport into glia and brain endothelial cells rely on GLUT1. Insulin isn’t necessary for GLUT1 or GLUT3, which explains why brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a precursor to the tissue macrophage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - On a mountain the atmospheric pressure is 700 mmHg and the humidity close...

    Incorrect

    • On a mountain the atmospheric pressure is 700 mmHg and the humidity close to zero, the partial pressure of oxygen is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 147 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Natural air includes approximately 21% of oxygen. If humidity is zero, the partial pressure of oxygen is 700 × 21% = 147 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - In the body what are fatty acids broken down to? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the body what are fatty acids broken down to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetyl Co A

      Explanation:

      Fatty acids are broken down into acetyl Co A. The acetyl-CoA produced by beta oxidation enters the citric acid cycle in the mitochondrion by combining with oxaloacetate to form citrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium that helps to initiate contraction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Troponin c

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome, is excess production of the hormone aldosterone by the adrenal glands resulting in low renin levels. Primary hyperaldosteronism has a number of causes. About 66% of cases are due to enlargement of both adrenal glands and 33% of cases are due to an adrenal adenoma that produces aldosterone. Other uncommon causes include adrenal cancer and an inherited disorder called familial hyperaldosteronism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - Calcium is mobilized from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through: ...

    Incorrect

    • Calcium is mobilized from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ryanodine receptor (RyR2) calcium release channels

      Explanation:

      During the plateau phase of the action potential, calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors. As a result intracellular calcium increases binding to troponin C resulting in contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system...

    Incorrect

    • The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system (NOS1) and endothelial cells (NOS3) are activated by agents that increase which of the following intracellular electrolytes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ca

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of nitric oxide is stimulated by activation of the NMDA receptors by certain agents. This leads to opening of the Calcium channels and an influx of calcium into the cell. This will activate the nitric oxide synthase. Nitric oxide is produced on demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic. Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Absolute refractory period in a cardiac action potential graph occurs during. ...

    Incorrect

    • Absolute refractory period in a cardiac action potential graph occurs during.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Absolute refractory period (ARP): the cell is completely unexcitable to a new stimulus and occurs from phase 0 – 2 i.e. depolarisation, early repolarisation and plateau phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)Nausea and vomiting: 50%Vertigo: 50%Confusion: 30%Subjective weakness: 20%Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathCherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.Management• 100% oxygen• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - The spleen underlies which ribs? ...

    Incorrect

    • The spleen underlies which ribs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9 through 11

      Explanation:

      The spleen lies between the 9th and 11th ribs on the left hand side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called: ...

    Incorrect

    • The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PCR

      Explanation:

      PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which...

    Incorrect

    • Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diploid

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new diploid nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - AV valves open during? ...

    Incorrect

    • AV valves open during?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early diastole

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.The first stage, diastole, is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. The second stage, atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle.The third stage, isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. The fourth stage, ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. During the fifth stage, isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - In which cell would you find a Nissl body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which cell would you find a Nissl body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar neuron

      Explanation:

      Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true? ...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein

      Explanation:

      P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - Water hammer pulse is found in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Water hammer pulse is found in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Watson’s water hammer pulse is the medical sign which describes a pulse that is bounding and forceful, rapidly increasing and subsequently collapsing, as if it were the sound of a water hammer that was causing the pulse. A water hammer was a Victorian toy in which a tube was half filled with fluid, the remainder being a vacuum. The child would invert and reinvert the tube; each time the impact of the fluid at each end would sound like a hammer blow. This is associated with increased stroke volume of the left ventricle and decrease in the peripheral resistance leading to the widened pulse pressure of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected

      Explanation:

      The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination:BP: 101/74 mmHgRR: 22 breaths/minPR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - Peristalsis is an example of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Peristalsis is an example of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enteric nervous system

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis is a type of contraction where radial symmetrical contraction and relaxation of muscles propagates food in a downward wave through the gut. The enteric nervous system is one of the main divisions of the nervous system and consists of a mesh-like system of neurons that controls the function of the gastrointestinal tract. It has an independent reflex activity. The neurons of this system re collected into two types of ganglia: myenteric (or Auerbach’s) and submucosal (or Meissner’s plexuses). Myenteric plexuses are located between the inner and outer layers of the muscularis externa, while submucosal plexuses are located in the submucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • A deficiency in Cyanocobalamin leads to which clinical deficiency syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      The main syndrome of vitamin B12 deficiency is pernicious anaemia. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms:Megaloblastic anaemiaGastrointestinal symptoms &Neurological symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - Compact/cortical bone makes up ...

    Incorrect

    • Compact/cortical bone makes up

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Explanation:

      Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal gland. In it, aldosterone is secreted as a response to an increase in potassium levels, decreased blood flow, or renin. This secretion is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - Regarding cardiac contractility, catecholamines exert their inotropic effect via: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac contractility, catecholamines exert their inotropic effect via:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Β1-adrenergic receptors and gs

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines exert their inotropic effect on the heart via the B1 adrenergic receptors and Gs, stimulating adenyl cyclase and increasing the production of cAMP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) does indeed lack introns, meaning that its genes are closely packed with coding sequences. This actually means that any point mutation in the mtDNA is more likely to have an effect, not less. The lack of introns means there are fewer non-coding regions where mutations can occur without affecting gene function. Thus, mutations in mtDNA often have significant consequences because they are more likely to alter essential coding sequences.

      The other statements are true:

      • Most mitochondrial diseases are myopathies and neuropathies with a maternal pattern of inheritance: This is correct because mtDNA is inherited maternally, and many mitochondrial disorders affect muscle and nerve function.
      • Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus, and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other diseases attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects: These are indeed conditions associated with mitochondrial defects.
      • Mitochondrial chromosome defects are inherited from one’s mother: This is correct, as mtDNA is passed from mother to offspring.
      • Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON), the commonest cause of blindness in young men, is an example of a mitochondrial chromosome defect: This is true; LHON is a well-known mitochondrial disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Influx of Ca++ & Na+

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - Medullary chemoreceptors ...

    Incorrect

    • Medullary chemoreceptors

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor H+ concentration of the CSF

      Explanation:

      Central chemoreceptors of the central nervous system, located on the ventrolateral medullary surface in the vicinity of the exit of the 9th and 10th cranial nerves, are sensitive to the pH of their environment. These act to detect the changes in pH of nearby cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that are indicative of altered oxygen or carbon dioxide concentrations available to brain tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - Which is NOT true of vitiligo? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT true of vitiligo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor

      Explanation:

      The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval ...

    Incorrect

    • Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: QT

      Explanation:

      The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization as well as ventricular repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per square millimetre of the cell membrane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodes of Ranvier

      Explanation:

      The nodes of Ranvier contain Na+/K+ ATPases, Na+/Ca2+ exchangers and a high density of Na+ channels. The estimated concentration of sodium channels in the node is of ∼1500/μm2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. These cranial nerves take origin from the midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - What is troponin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is troponin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - Which of the following makes up the thick filaments in muscle fibers? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following makes up the thick filaments in muscle fibers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myosin

      Explanation:

      The thick filaments are made up of myosin and the thin filaments are made up of actin. The thick filaments are twice the size of the thin filaments and are aligned to form the A band. The thin filaments extending out from the A band form the less dense I bands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TRH

      Explanation:

      Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, also known as TRH, thyrotropin-releasing factor, TRF is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus. It functions as a releasing hormone, promoting the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - Which coronary artery supplies the right atria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery supplies the right atria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery distributes blood to the left side of the heart, the left atrium and ventricle, and the interventricular septum. The circumflex artery arises from the left coronary artery and follows the coronary sulcus to the left. Eventually, it will fuse with the small branches of the right coronary artery. The right coronary artery proceeds along the coronary sulcus and distributes blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the heart conduction system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - Where does secretin work in the pancreas? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does secretin work in the pancreas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic ducts

      Explanation:

      Secretin, a hormone produced by the duodenal S cells in response to the stomach chyme containing high hydrogen atom concentration (high acidity), is released into the blood stream; upon return to the digestive tract, secretion decreases gastric emptying, increases secretion of the pancreatic ductal cells, as well as stimulating pancreatic acinar cells to release their zymogenic juice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents? ...

    Incorrect

    • In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections and two downward deflections have been described: The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with a 4-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has been unable to keep fluids down for 4 days and has been treated with metoclopramide. She develops a dystonic reaction. What is the most appropriate treatment for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benztropine

      Explanation:

      Acute dystonic reactions (extrapyramidal symptoms) such as spasmodic torticollis, trismus, and oculogyric crises can occur following the administration of metoclopramide or stemetil and thus, neither is recommended for the treatment of nausea in young women.

      Such reactions respond well to treatment with benztropine or procyclidine.

      – Benztropine: It is an anticholinergic medication with significant CNS penetration. A single dose of benztropine 1 to 2 mg IV followed by 1 to 2 mg p.o twice a day for up to 7 days to prevent a recurrence. Subsequently, both the offending agent and those from the same group should be avoided.

      – Alternatively, diphenhydramine can be used intravenously (up to a dose of 50mg) or intramuscularly followed by p.o therapy every 6 hours for 1 to 2 to prevent a recurrence.- Second-line therapy with IV benzodiazepines is reserved for those patients who do not respond to anticholinergics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.Pharmacological effects:- Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.- Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.- Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:- Hypersensitivity- Primary biliary cirrhosis- Pre-existing gallbladder disease- Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy- Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - Which of the following conditions does not influence the cardiac output? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not influence the cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep

      Explanation:

      Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - Efferent innervation of the muscle spindle is supplied by which type of motor...

    Incorrect

    • Efferent innervation of the muscle spindle is supplied by which type of motor neuron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gama – motor neuron

      Explanation:

      The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is via Type Ia fibers whereas the motor supply is via gamma motor neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Critical shortening of Telomeres result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Critical shortening of Telomeres result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of p53 and prb and cell crisis

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are repetitive nucleotide sequences at the ends of chromosomes that protect them from deterioration or from fusion with neighboring chromosomes. Each time a cell divides, its telomeres shorten. When they become critically short, they can no longer protect the chromosome ends, triggering a DNA damage response.

      This response leads to the activation of tumor suppressor proteins p53 and pRb (retinoblastoma protein). Activated p53 can induce cell cycle arrest, allowing time for DNA repair or triggering apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Similarly, pRb helps regulate cell cycle progression and can halt the cell cycle to prevent the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA.

      As a result, the cell enters a state of crisis, characterized by widespread cell death and genomic instability, which ultimately prevents the propagation of cells with critically shortened telomeres.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      Activation of p53 and pRb and cell crisis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - The following contributes to the rate of depolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following contributes to the rate of depolarization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Depolarization occurs due to impulses generated by the SA node. As the heart beats to the rhythm of the SA node, certain factors will effect the rate of depolarization. All the mentioned options effect the rate of depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin...

    Incorrect

    • The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidise

      Explanation:

      Thyroid peroxidase is an enzyme that is secreted into the thyroid colloid. It works by oxidizing iodide ions into iodine which are incorporated into thyroglobulin, in order to produce T3 and T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - The actions of thrombin result directly in the release of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The actions of thrombin result directly in the release of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrin monomers

      Explanation:

      Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the cardiac cycle, all of the following are true except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles

      Explanation:

      Mitral valve is closed by contraction of papillary muscles: This statement is incorrect. The mitral valve closes due to the pressure difference between the left ventricle and the left atrium at the onset of ventricular systole. The papillary muscles contract to prevent prolapse of the valve into the atrium but do not cause the valve to close.

      The left ventricular volume is maximal at the end of atrial systole: This statement is true. At the end of atrial systole, the atria have pushed the remaining blood into the ventricles, making the ventricular volume maximal (end-diastolic volume).

      The left ventricular pressure is maximal just before the aortic valve opens: This statement is true. Left ventricular pressure peaks just before the aortic valve opens, as the ventricle contracts to overcome the pressure in the aorta.

      The ejection fraction is about 55%: This statement is true. The ejection fraction, which is the percentage of blood ejected from the ventricles with each contraction, is typically around 55%.

      The ‘a’ wave is due to atrial systole: This statement is true. The ‘a’ wave on the venous pressure curve corresponds to atrial systole, reflecting the increased pressure from atrial contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the first hour following injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein

      Explanation:

      Measurement of acute-phase proteins, especially C-reactive protein, is a useful marker of inflammation. It correlates with the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), however not always directly. This is due to the ESR being largely dependent on elevation of fibrinogen, an acute phase reactant with a half-life of approximately one week. This protein will therefore remain higher for longer despite removal of the inflammatory stimuli. In contrast, C-reactive protein (with a half-life of 6-8 hours) rises rapidly and can quickly return to within the normal range if treatment is employed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Regarding the length of systole and diastole which of the following is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the length of systole and diastole which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The duration of systole is more fixed than diastole

      Explanation:

      The duration of systole is more fixed than the duration of diastole. When the heart rate increases the timing of systole remains more or less the same however, diastole decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas: ...

    Incorrect

    • Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hippocampus and striatum

      Explanation:

      In humans, neurogenesis or new neurons are continually born during adulthood in two regions of the brain: The subgranular zone (SGZ), part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the striatum. In other species of mammals, adult-born neurons also appear in the olfactory bulb. In humans, however, few if any olfactory bulb neurons are generated after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - Neutrophils are key components of the innate immune system. They contain numerous primary...

    Incorrect

    • Neutrophils are key components of the innate immune system. They contain numerous primary and secondary granules involved in killing and digesting microorganisms. With regard to defensins, they are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naturally occurring cysteine-rich antibacterial and antifungal polypeptides

      Explanation:

      Cationic antimicrobial peptides, including defensins, cathelicidins, and thrombocidins, provide important initial defences against invading microbes. These peptides bind the bacterial membrane and form pores, killing the bacterium by hypo-osmotic lysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?...

    Incorrect

    • Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right homonymous hemianopia

      Explanation:

      Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion or pressure on the left optic tract. Total blindness of the left eye is due to a complete occlusion of the left optic nerve. Bipolar hemianopia is due to a midline chiasmal lesion. Left nasal hemianopia due to a lesion involving the left perichiasmal area. Right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is due to involvement of the lower left optic radiations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the following group of nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN III, IV, V1, VI

      Explanation:

      The superior and inferior divisions of oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of ophthalmic V1 and the abducens nerve (VI)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - What is pulse pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pulse pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

      Explanation:

      The pulse pressure is the difference between the measured systolic and diastolic pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - Select the correct statement regarding portal hypertension. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding portal hypertension.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The total vascular resistance of the hepatic sinusoids is increased.

      Explanation:

      Portal hypertension is increased blood pressure within the portal venous system. This happens mainly due to liver damage which increases the vascular resistance of hepatic sinusoids by interfering with the normal blood flow. Portal blood pressure increases and flow through the liver decreases. Normal portal venous pressure is between 5-10 mmHg and in portal hypertension it’s usually more than 10 mmHg. This high pressure can cause accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity known as ascites. To overcome the pressure, the portal vein starts to drain blood to systemic circulation via porto-systemic shunts. The connection between the portal vein and inferior vena cava is known as the porto caval shunt. Due to damaged hepatocytes, detoxification of substances absorbed in the intestine is impaired and the former shunt mixes non-detoxified blood with the systemic circulation. These toxic substances may affect neurons causing hepatic encephalopathy which is a major complication of portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron into the synaptic cleft and also by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (3/6) 50%
Medicine (14/33) 42%
Cell Biology (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (2/4) 50%
Connective Tissue (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Neurology (1/4) 25%
Genetics (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Passmed