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  • Question 1 - Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Haematocrit

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroid function in pregnancy is altered in two ways; the circulating levels of the thyroid binding proteins are increased, resulting in an increase in the total circulating levels of thyroid hormones (but a slight fall in the free component).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm.
      Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?

      Your Answer: Implanon

      Correct Answer: Condoms

      Explanation:

      This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.

      It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.

      For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
      – Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
      – Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
      – A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?

      Your Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is described as programmed cell death. The cell release certain proapoptotic mediators that regulate this cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most...

    Correct

    • The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:

      Your Answer: Molding

      Explanation:

      With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview,...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview, it was noted that she has been having unprotected intercourse with her husband regularly for the past year but has not become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her menses occur every 28 to 30 days and they last 4 to 5 days. A day before her menses, she has episodes of severe lower abdominal pain that is only partially relieved by ibuprofen.
      Further history taking was done and revealed that she was treated for gonococcal cervicitis at age 19. The patient also takes a prenatal vitamin every day and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her 31-year-old husband recently had semen analysis and his results were normal.

      Further examination was done and the following are her results:
      Blood pressure is 126/70mmHg
      Pulse is 85/min
      BMI is 31 kg/m2

      Upon further examination and observation, it was revealed that she has a small uterus with a cervix that appears laterally displaced and there is accompanying pain upon cervical manipulation.

      Which of the following is most likely considered the cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecologic disease characterized by the development and presence of histological elements like endometrial glands and stroma in anatomical positions and organs outside of the uterine cavity. The main clinical manifestations of the disease are chronic pelvic pain and impaired fertility. The localization of endometriosis lesions can vary, with the most commonly involved focus of the disease the ovaries followed by the posterior broad ligament, the anterior cul-de-sac, the posterior cul-de-sac, and the uterosacral ligament.

      The clinical presentation of the disease differs in women and may be unexpected not only in the presentation but also in the duration. Clinicians usually suspect and are more likely to diagnose the disease in females presenting with the typical symptomatology such as dyspareunia, namely painful sexual intercourse, pelvic pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), pain in the urination (dysuria), defecation (dyschezia), and/or infertility. The pain is usually characterized as chronic, cyclic, and progressive (exacerbating over time). Furthermore, some women suffering from endometriosis experience hyperalgesia, a phenomenon, when even with the application of a nonpainful stimulus, an intolerable painful reaction is released. This condition indicates neuropathic pain.

      Tenderness on vaginal examination, palpable nodules in the posterior fornix, adnexal masses, and immobility of the uterus are diagnostically indicating findings of endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests:


      Luteinizing hormone levels are low.
      Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone.
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low.
      Prolactin-high.

      What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.

      Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
      This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

      Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
      When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain from the parts of the vagina as follows:
      • Superior part: to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes.
      • Middle part: to the internal iliac lymph nodes.
      • Inferior part: to the sacral and common iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      20% of the patients with breast cancer will have hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first...

    Incorrect

    • During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150ml

      Explanation:

      Micturition is defined as a process of expelling urine from the body. It is caused by the reflex contraction of detrusor muscle. Urinary bladder is a hollow muscular organ which can store 400-600ml of urine until it is expelled from the body. The first urge to urinate is felt when the bladder is filled with around 150ml of urine. The reflex action is initiated when the stretch receptors located in the bladder wall are stimulated. The afferent fibres pass to the pelvic splanchnic nerves to the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sacral segments and some pass through the hypogastric plexus to the first and second lumbar segments of the spinal cord. Efferent pathways from the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th sacral segments leave the cords and through the splanchnic nerves and inferior hypogastric plexus supplies the smooth muscle of the bladder i.e. detrusor muscle. Detrusor muscle contracts and the sphincters are relaxed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound? ...

    Incorrect

    • What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiotocograph

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the...

    Incorrect

    • According to the WHO, maternal mortality ratio is defined as which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal deaths per 100,000 live births

      Explanation:

      The World Health Organisation defines the maternal mortality ratio as the number of maternal deaths during a given period per 100,000 live births during the same period. This measure indicates the risk of death in a single pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

    A...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

      A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.

      Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase risk of adhesions

      Explanation:

      Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
      -Increased risk of maternal mortality.
      -Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
      -Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
      -Increased risk of infections.

      Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow.

      Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
      Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.

      Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Choriocarcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Choriocarcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematogenous

      Explanation:

      Choriocarcinoma spreads hematogenously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Incorrect

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The bleeding was described to be heavier than ever compared with her previous periods. Upon interview, it was noted that her menstrual cycles was ranging from 4 to 6 weeks.

      A urine pregnancy test was performed and the result was positive. Upon vaginal examination, it was noted that her cervical os is closed. An endovaginal ultrasound was performed and the results showed an endometrial thickness of 12mm and an empty uterus. There was also clear adnexa, and no fluid in the pouch of Douglas was seen. A cyst in the corpus luteum of the left ovary was also noted.

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete abortion

      Explanation:

      Complete abortion is defined as a ‘complete’ passage of all conception products.

      The first day of the last menstrual period and findings on any prior ultrasounds should be determined to establish the gestational age and location of the pregnancy. An abdominal exam should be performed to assess for peritoneal signs that might indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy or extra-uterine extension of a septic abortion. Lastly, a pelvic exam is central to the evaluation of suspected miscarriage. It should include both speculum-facilitated visualization of the cervix and a bimanual examination to assess for cervical motion tenderness that may indicate a septic abortion or an adnexal mass that may herald ectopic pregnancy.

      Early pregnancy loss takes many different forms. In missed abortion, there is asymptomatic or ‘missed’ death of the embryo or foetus without sufficient uterine contractions to push out the products of conception. In contrast, threatened abortion is characterized by symptomatic, ‘threatened’ expulsion of the products of conception, yet the cervical os remains closed, and the embryo or foetus remains viable.

      Although there is a lack of consensus, complete abortion is often defined as the absence of a gestational sac on ultrasound with an endometrial stripe thickness of less than 30 mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit.

      She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain).

      She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country.

      On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min.

      Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation.

      What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination.

      Explanation:

      In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.

      The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.

      If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.

      Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.

      If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.

      If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.

      Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.

      Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

      Explanation:

      Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
      Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)

      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.

      Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.

      Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.

      Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.

      Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding the biophysical profile: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the biophysical profile:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid

      Explanation:

      The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is on the ward with a mechanical mitral valve. There is no history of VTE. What is the target INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5 - 3.5

      Explanation:

      With the use of warfarin, strict control of the INR is compulsory. After mitral valve replacement the INR should ideally be kept between 2.5-3.5. If the Ball and Cage or the Tilting Disc is used as a prosthetic valve then the target INR is 3.5, for bi-leaflets the target INR is 3.0 and for biological valves the target INR is 2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives for a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old high school teacher arrives for a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive tablet. She is new to your clinic, having recently relocated for a new position at a junior college. She does not smoke or consume alcoholic beverages. Sumatriptan 20mg intranasal spray has helped her with recurring headaches with aura in the past.

      What are your plans for the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer progestogen-only contraceptive options

      Explanation:

      The combination oral contraceptive pill is an unequivocal contraindication for this patient (migraine with aura). Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
      There is no need for a neurologist’s assessment or a brain MRI because her migraines are managed with sumatriptan nasal spray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The amniotic fluid volume progressively increases during pregnancy. At which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The amniotic fluid volume progressively increases during pregnancy. At which of the following gestational ages will amniotic fluid volume reach a maximum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35 weeks

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid volume begins to increase rapidly in the second and third trimester as the fetal kidneys continue to develop. By 35 weeks gestation the amniotic fluid volume reaches a maximum average of about 800 ml after which it decreases slightly to term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix after standard pap smear testing. She was referred to a gynaecologist, who effectively treated her. This patient has now been returned to you.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring after treatment for HSIL includes:
      – colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months followed by HPV typing at 12 months and annually until a negative test is obtained on 2 subsequent check ups.
      -2 yearly screening interval can be done afterwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All are correct

      Explanation:

      LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac.

      Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.

      Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
      High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
      Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
      Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
      Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
      Sterilization 5.2 to 19
      IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
      Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
      In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3

      Moderate:
      Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
      Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
      Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
      In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
      Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
      Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
      Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0

      Low:
      Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
      Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
      Age ≥40 years 2.9
      Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
      Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
      Previous appendectomy 1.6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 34 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.

      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 35 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 36 - Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which...

    Incorrect

    • Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6-12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 38 - At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised ...

    Incorrect

    • At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 39 - Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with...

    Incorrect

    • Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-secretory

      Explanation:

      During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
      In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. 

      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. 

      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. 
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. 
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. 
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally.  Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. 

      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
      c) Urinalysis
      - Protein: none
      - Ketones: present

      CT scan of the head is normal. 

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 41 - Regarding ovarian cancer, which factors are thought to lower the risk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding ovarian cancer, which factors are thought to lower the risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a gynaecological cancer that commonly affects women over 40 years. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include: infertility, a family history of ovarian, breast or colorectal cancer. There are some protective factors, which include: high parity and breastfeeding, early age at menarche and late age at menopause, and combined oral contraceptives, and statins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 42 - A 61 year old patient undergoes laparotomy for a suspicious left sided ovarian...

    Incorrect

    • A 61 year old patient undergoes laparotomy for a suspicious left sided ovarian mass. Following histology the patient is diagnosed with a stage 1A ovarian epithelial cancer. What is the 5 year survival for stage 1 ovarian cancers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      The five year survival of stage 1 ovarian cancer is 70-90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 43 - You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of the following risks is reduced with CS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      There are many different reasons for performing a delivery by Caesarean section. The four major indications accounting for greater than 70 per cent of operations are: 1. previous Caesarean section 2. dystocia 3. malpresentation 4. suspected acute fetal compromise. Other indications, such as multifetal pregnancy, abruptio placenta, placenta praevia, fetal disease and maternal disease are less common. The chances of early postpartum haemorrhage are greatly reduced in C-section deliveries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause occurs if menopause happens before the age of 40. It effects 1% of women under the age of 40 and 0.1% under 30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 45 - What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15 million spermatozoa per ml

      Explanation:

      WHO guidelines
      Semen volume: Greater than or equal to 1.5 ml
      pH: Greater than or equal to 7.2
      Sperm concentration: Greater than or equal to 15 million spermatozoa per ml
      Total sperm number: 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more
      Total motility (% of progressive motility and nonprogressive motility): 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility
      Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa
      Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): 4% or more

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
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  • Question 46 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 47 - Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance ...

    Incorrect

    • Adult Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD) typically follows which pattern of inheritance

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant

      Explanation:

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) can either be autosomal dominant or recessive. The autosomal dominant variant is more common in adult PKD however, the recessive pattern is more common in infantile PKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 48 - Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 49 - Delayed puberty in girls is defined as? ...

    Incorrect

    • Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old

      Explanation:

      Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 51 - Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless.

      The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysterosalpingogram

      Explanation:

      Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.

      A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).

      Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.

      PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.

      Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.

      Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.

      Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).

      In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 52 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 53 - A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks.

      On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%.
      Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range.

      Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
      – Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
      – Moderate to severe dehydration.
      – Ketosis
      – Electrolyte abnormalities.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
      – Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
      – Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
      – Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
      – Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
      – Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.

      Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 54 - In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal term foetus

      Explanation:

      Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 55 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      G0 is a resting phase. Interphase (G1,S,G2) is where the cell grows and DNA replication occurs forming chromatids. Mitosis is where cell division occurs and this happens in a the following phases: Prophase Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms Metaphase Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate Anaphase Chromatids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes Telophase New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome Cytokinesis Cells divide Diagram illustrating Mitosis Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
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  • Question 56 - Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.

      Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.

      Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT)...

    Incorrect

    • A couple has decided to practice the daily basal body temperature assessment (BBT) as a means of contraception. Over the past year, her cycles varied in length from 24 to 30 days with menses lasting 4 days. They do not have sexual intercourse when she is on her period.

      Which regimen would be the most suitable to minimise the chances of getting pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle, commence intercourse two days after temperature elevation of 0.3°C and continue thereafter.

      Explanation:

      The best regimen would be to have no intercourse in the follicular phase of the cycle and then commence it two days after a temperature rise of 0.3C and continue then onwards. When deciding the best contraceptive method, one has to consider two factors-the duration of survival of sperm in the uterus and body temperature in relation to ovulation. For this case, since her cycle length varies from 24 to 30 days, the earliest time in which ovulation would occur would be 14 days before her shortest cycle i.e. day 10. Intercourse has to be avoided from day 4 of her cycle just in case the current cycle is short because sperm can survive up to 6 days in the uterus. Day 4 would be the day her menses would end and as this couple avoids intercourse during her menstruation, there would be no intercourse during the follicular phase of her cycle.

      During ovulation, her serum progesterone levels would start to increase, causing a 0.3°C to 0.4°C increase in her body temperature within 2-3 days of ovulating. This elevation in temperature would remain until close to when her period starts. The ovum can only be fertilised for roughly 24 hours after ovulation has taken place. Resuming sexual intercourse once her temperature has risen for 2 days would suggest that ovulation had already taken place 3-4 days earlier and so it is unlikely for pregnancy to occur.

      Options that include intercourse during any part of her follicular phase is not correct. Hence, the only option that satisfies the above criteria would be intercourse avoidance during her follicular phase and to resume 2 days following a rise of 0.03°C in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 59 - What is the definition of premature menopause? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of premature menopause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopause at or before 40 years of age

      Explanation:

      Menopause is defined as the cessation of menstruation for a period of 12 months. Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menstruation before the age of 40.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 60 - Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (3/3) 100%
Passmed