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  • Question 1 - Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?...

    Incorrect

    • Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?

      Your Answer: 85 ml

      Correct Answer: 70 ml

      Explanation:

      The stroke volume of an average sized man who is lying is the supine position is about 70 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - With regard to cell membrane proteins: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to cell membrane proteins:

      Your Answer: Those that act as pumps transport substances down an electrochemical gradient

      Correct Answer: Carriers are involved in facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Pumps use a source of free energy such as ATP to transport ions against a gradient and is an example of active transport. Unlike channel proteins which only transport substances through membranes passively, carrier proteins can transport ions and molecules either passively through facilitated diffusion, or via secondary active transport. Channels are either in open state or closed state. When a channel is opened, it is open to both extracellular and intracellular. Pores are continuously open to both environments, because they do not undergo conformational changes. They are always open and active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous lesions

      Correct Answer: Nail dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Bacteria constantly remodel their peptidoglycan cell walls, simultaneously building and breaking down portions of the cell wall as they grow and divide. β-Lactam antibiotics inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall; this is achieved through binding of the four-membered β-lactam ring of penicillin to the enzyme DD-transpeptidase. As a consequence, DD-transpeptidase cannot catalyse formation of these cross-links, and an imbalance between cell wall production and degradation develops, causing the cell to rapidly die.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the following cells:

      Your Answer: T and b cells only

      Correct Answer: T cells, b cells and natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      T Cells, B Cells and NK Cells (and all other Innate lymphoid cells) are unique to the lymphocyte family, but dendritic cells are not. Dendritic cells of identical appearance but different markers are spread throughout the body, and come from either lymphoid and myeloid lineages.

      Myeloid stem cells lead to myeloblasts, which evolve into macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer: Vaporisation of sweat

      Correct Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the...

    Correct

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer: SGLT1

      Explanation:

      SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult.Her blood investigations revealed:White cell count: 13 × 109/lHaemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dlActivated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): NormalPlatelets: 140 × 109/lINR: 6.0Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal.Other investigations:An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal.An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?

      Your Answer: Give vitamin K 5.0 mg intravenously

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and observe

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate. Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      127.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision.Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sucralfate

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive ANA: positiveCK: 2000 U/LESR: 60mm/hrEMG: myopathic changesPresence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Telomeres are best described as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomeres are best described as:

      Your Answer: The protein end portion of DNA protecting the DNA from damage

      Correct Answer: A repetitive DNA sequence at the end of a DNA molecule.

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot. LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation. Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.Dosage and uses:LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.Less commonly it can cause:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)Osteoporosis and spontaneous fracturesHypoaldosteronismHypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential?

      Your Answer: The amount of intracellular Ca2+

      Correct Answer: Changes in the external Na+ concentration

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of the action potential is determined by the sodium current. Increase in external sodium will result in increased influx of sodium and hence generation of a stronger action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea. What New York Heart Association class best describes the severity of their disease?

      Your Answer: NYHA Class II

      Explanation:

      New York Heart Association functional classification:

      Class I: no limitation is experienced in any activities; there are no symptoms from ordinary activities.

      Class II: slight, mild limitation of activity; the patient is comfortable at rest or with mild exertion.

      Class III: marked limitation of any activity; the patient is comfortable only at rest.

      Class IV: any physical activity brings on discomfort and symptoms occur at rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?

      Your Answer: Median eminence

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Medullary chemoreceptors ...

    Correct

    • Medullary chemoreceptors

      Your Answer: Monitor H+ concentration of the CSF

      Explanation:

      Central chemoreceptors of the central nervous system, located on the ventrolateral medullary surface in the vicinity of the exit of the 9th and 10th cranial nerves, are sensitive to the pH of their environment. These act to detect the changes in pH of nearby cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that are indicative of altered oxygen or carbon dioxide concentrations available to brain tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which statement is correct regarding mRNA? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct regarding mRNA?

      Your Answer: mRNAs are mainly found in the nucleus and cytoplasm of a cell.

      Explanation:

      mRNA is transcribed from DNA and is carried to the cytosol to be translated. Hence it is mainly found in the cytosol and the nucleus of a cell. It is single stranded and contains the base uracil instead of thymine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin...

    Incorrect

    • The apical enzyme responsible for the oxidation and reaction of iodide with thyroglobulin is:

      Your Answer: Pendrin

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidise

      Explanation:

      Thyroid peroxidase is an enzyme that is secreted into the thyroid colloid. It works by oxidizing iodide ions into iodine which are incorporated into thyroglobulin, in order to produce T3 and T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which cells secrete insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells secrete insulin?

      Your Answer: A cells of the islets of Langerhans

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents? ...

    Correct

    • In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents?

      Your Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections and two downward deflections have been described: The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following biochemical profiles is seen in a normal 65 year old female? (in comparison to a normal 24 yr. old female)

      Your Answer: Increased FSH, LH; decreased oestrogen, progesterone

      Explanation:

      During menopause, a woman’s number of ovarian follicles becomes depleted; as a result, oestrogen and progesterone levels drop, and LH and FSH levels increase. One of the criteria to diagnose menopause is the absence of menstrual period for a year, along with a serum FSH level increased to 30 mIU/ml or higher. LH also rises with the onset of menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions...

    Correct

    • In the presence of oxygen , lactate that was produced under anaerobic conditions is converted to:

      Your Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Lactate can be used in two ways:Oxidation back to pyruvate by well-oxygenated muscle cells, heart cells, and brain cells. Pyruvate is then directly used to fuel the Krebs cycle orConversion to glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver and release back into circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Incorrect

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Decrease in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      885.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply?

      Your Answer: Portal hypophysial vessels

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary receives its arterial supply from the superior hypophyseal artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid that forms a capillary around the hypothalamus; thus forming the hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE

      Your Answer: Gene probes can be labelled with radioactive isotopes g 32 p

      Correct Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      94.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?

      Your Answer: Thalamus

      Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following cells are attracted to the surface of endothelium by...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cells are attracted to the surface of endothelium by selectins?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Selectins are expressed on the surface of the endothelium. P selectins are released from weibel-palade bodies and E selectins are induced by cytokines (TNF and IL-1). They bind to receptors on the neutrophils called saiyl lewis X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - On which presynaptic receptor does noradrenalin act to inhibit noradrenalin secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which presynaptic receptor does noradrenalin act to inhibit noradrenalin secretion?

      Your Answer: Α1 receptor

      Correct Answer: Α2 receptor

      Explanation:

      Adregenic receptors are A1, A2, B1, B2, B3. Out of these, the function of the A2 receptor is inhibition of transmitter release including nor adrenalin and acetylcholine of the autonomic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      41.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/4) 50%
Medicine (13/30) 43%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Cell Biology (1/2) 50%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (3/8) 38%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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