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  • Question 1 - In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not...

    Correct

    • In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not expect to find?

      Your Answer: Hypohidrosis

      Explanation:

      Features of acromegaly may include:

      • Soft tissue swelling visibly resulting in enlargement of the hands, feet, nose, lips and ears, and a general thickening of the skin
      • Soft tissue swelling of internal organs, notably the heart with associated weakening of its muscularity, and the kidneys, vocal cords (resulting in a characteristic thick, deep voice and slowing of speech)
      • Generalized expansion of the skull at the fontanelle, frontal bossing, prognathism with associated macroglossia (enlargement of the tongue) and teeth spacing.
      • Hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation and hyperhidrosis (not hypohidrosis) may occur in these patients as well as carpal tunnel syndrome and impotence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Tunica intima is made up of? ...

    Correct

    • Tunica intima is made up of?

      Your Answer: Endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Tunica intima is a single cell thick lining of endothelial cells that lines the inside of the blood vessels. It is the inner most layer of the blood vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Glucose absorption in the small intestine is coupled with which of the following...

    Correct

    • Glucose absorption in the small intestine is coupled with which of the following electrolytes?

      Your Answer: Na

      Explanation:

      Sodium-glucose linked transporter are family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and absorbs glucose via cotransport of Na+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding carbohydrates absorption; ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbohydrates absorption;

      Your Answer: Intestinal glucose absorption requires phosphorylation

      Correct Answer: Intestinal absorption of sugars is inhibited by the drug phlorizin

      Explanation:

      The main role of insulin is in the uptake of glucose from blood to tissues where it is metabolised. Glycose transporters in the intestines do not depend on the action of insulin. Phlorizin is a competitive inhibitor of SGLT1 and SGLT2 because it competes with glucose for the binding site, reducing intestinal and renal glucose transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains: ...

    Correct

    • The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains:

      Your Answer: Zn and Cu

      Explanation:

      The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains zinc and copper

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Where is most of the filtered sodium reabsorbed? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is most of the filtered sodium reabsorbed?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending loop of Henle

      Correct Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      Renal reabsorption of sodium (Na+) is a part of renal physiology. It uses Na-H antiport, Na-glucose symport, sodium ion channels (minor). It is stimulated by angiotensin II and aldosterone, and inhibited by atrial natriuretic peptide. Most of the reabsorption (65%) occurs in the proximal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in...

    Correct

    • A 49 year old female presents to the clinic complaining of pain in her left elbow that is localized to the left lateral epicondyle. She has spent the weekend painting her house. A diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is suspected. The pain would characteristically worsen on which of the following movements?

      Your Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles, thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which results in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The direct determinants of cardiac output are ...

    Correct

    • The direct determinants of cardiac output are

      Your Answer: Stroke volume and heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output is classically defined alongside stroke volume (SV) and the heart rate (HR) as:Cardiac Output [L/min] = Stroke Volume [L/beat] x Heart Rate [beats/min]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the main reason for checking the urea and electrolytes prior to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main reason for checking the urea and electrolytes prior to commencing a patient on amiodarone?

      Your Answer: To detect impaired renal function

      Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      All antiarrhythmic drugs have the potential to cause arrhythmias. Coexistent hypokalaemia significantly increases this risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous...

    Correct

    • There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of...

    Incorrect

    • 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase

      Correct Answer: B 12

      Explanation:

      MTR, also known as methionine synthase, is a methyltransferase enzyme, which uses the Vitamin B12 to transfer a methyl group from 5-methyltetrahydrofolate to homocysteine, thereby generating tetrahydrofolate (THF) and methionine. This functionality is lost in vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in an increased homocysteine level and the trapping of folate as 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate, from which THF (the active form of folate) cannot be recovered. THF plays an important role in DNA synthesis so reduced availability of THF results in ineffective production of cells with rapid turnover, in particular red blood cells, and also intestinal wall cells which are responsible for absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach: ...

    Correct

    • Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach:

      Your Answer: -6 mmHg

      Explanation:

      It is a negative pressure as it is lower than the atmospheric pressure. It can start from -2.5 and reach around -6 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers… ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers…

      Your Answer: Cold receptors also spans this fiber

      Correct Answer: They are thinly myelinated

      Explanation:

      Group C nerve fibers are unmyelinated and have a small diameter, which means they conduct impulses at a low velocity. They carry sensory information and nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer: Switch to gliclazide 40mg od

      Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step. There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity. Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.Note:Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2. Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality...

    Incorrect

    • In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Barbiturates

      Correct Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)- Barbiturate- Lithium- Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)- Salicylates- Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:- Tricyclics- Benzodiazepines- Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)- Digoxin- Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Microfilaments exist in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Microfilaments exist in:

      Your Answer: Beneath plasma membranes

      Correct Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Microfilaments, also called actin filaments, are filamentous structures in the cytoplasm of cells and form part of the cytoskeleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Coronary arteries fill up during ...

    Incorrect

    • Coronary arteries fill up during

      Your Answer: Systole

      Correct Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      During contraction of the ventricular myocardium (systole), the subendocardial coronary vessels (the vessels that enter the myocardium) are compressed due to the high ventricular pressures. This compression results in momentary retrograde blood flow (i.e., blood flows backward toward the aorta) which further inhibits perfusion of myocardium during systole. However, the epicardial coronary vessels (the vessels that run along the outer surface of the heart) remain open. Because of this, blood flow in the sub endocardium stops during ventricular contraction. As a result, most myocardial perfusion occurs during heart relaxation (diastole) when the subendocardial coronary vessels are open and under lower pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Median

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which statement regarding fever is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding fever is correct:

      Your Answer: There is diurnal variation of approximately 1°C

      Correct Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is an example of a ketone body? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?

      Your Answer: Acetyl CoA

      Correct Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the most important source of heat production in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important source of heat production in the body?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Thermogenesis is the process by which organisms produce heat. Through skeletal muscle contraction, or shivering, ATP is converted into kinetic energy, some of which converts into heat. These muscle contractions produce about 70% of total body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Cell membrane proteins may act as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cell membrane proteins may act as:

      Your Answer: Ionic channels

      Correct Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Membrane proteins perform a variety of functions including:Membrane receptor proteins relay or carry signals between the cell’s internal and external environments.Transport proteins move molecules and ions (ionic channels) across the membrane. Membrane enzymes may have many activities, such as oxidoreductase, transferase or hydrolase andCell adhesion molecules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The proportion of individuals within a population affected by disease at a specific...

    Incorrect

    • The proportion of individuals within a population affected by disease at a specific time point, based on positive testing for serum antibodies is known as:

      Your Answer: Seroconversion

      Correct Answer: Sero-Prevalence

      Explanation:

      In immunology, seroconversion is the time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody. Sero-prevalence includes individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Endothelial stem cells - chondrocytes

      Correct Answer: Hemopoietic stem cells - basophils

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) or hemocytoblasts are the stem cells that give rise to all the other blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They give rise to both the myeloid and lymphoid lineages of blood cells. (Myeloid cells include monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, dendritic cells, and megakaryocytes or platelets. Lymphoid cells include T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomere reconstructing enzyme

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The onset of puberty is triggered by ...

    Incorrect

    • The onset of puberty is triggered by

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Increase in pulsatile GNRH secretion from hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The onset of puberty is associated with high GNRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones. Brain tumours which increase GNRH output may also lead to premature puberty. The cause of the GNRH rise is unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the...

    Correct

    • Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery?

      Your Answer: Deiodinase 1

      Explanation:

      Type 1 iodothyronine deiodinase, also known simply as deiodinase 1, is an enzyme which can produce both triiodothyronine (active form) or inactivate metabolites from T4. It is responsible for almost 80% of the conversion of peripheral T4 to T3. Iodothyronine deiodinases are not to be confused with iodotyrosine deiodinases, which are also part of the deiodinase enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - During quiet breathing the diaphragm’s role accounts for what percent of respiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • During quiet breathing the diaphragm’s role accounts for what percent of respiration?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The contraction of the diaphragm accounts for approximately 75% of the air movement during normal breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in:

      Your Answer: A stenotic aortic valve

      Explanation:

      In aortic valve stenosis, increased ventricular pressure Is needed to expel the blood into the aorta. Increased pressure means increased contractility hence increase O2 consumption by the heart muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is safe in pregnancy and is therefore the first line management. Warfarin is teratogenic and must be avoided whilst the other options have no role to play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Arachidonic acid is converted to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Arachidonic acid is converted to:

      Your Answer: Arachidonate

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin H2

      Explanation:

      The enzymes cyclooxygenase-1 and -2 (i.e. prostaglandin G/H synthase 1 and 2 {PTGS1 and PTGS2}) metabolize arachidonic acid to Prostaglandin G2 and prostaglandin H2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Troponin I is inhibited by calcium binding to:

      Your Answer: Cardiotropin

      Correct Answer: Troponin c

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located?

      Your Answer: Premotor cortex

      Correct Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. These cranial nerves take origin from the midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?...

    Incorrect

    • In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Prophase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The intestine is lined by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The intestine is lined by:

      Your Answer: Transitional epithelium

      Correct Answer: Simple columnar epithelium

      Explanation:

      In the small intestine, epithelium is simple columnar and specialised for absorption. The epithelium is arranged into villi, creating a brush border and increasing the area for absorption. The epithelium is simple columnar with microvilli.In the colon, epithelium is simple columnar and without villi. Goblet cells, which secrete mucous, are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Visual pathways - Choose the true statement: ...

    Incorrect

    • Visual pathways - Choose the true statement:

      Your Answer: None are true

      Correct Answer: The lateral geniculate nucleus, magnocellular & parvocellular pathways project to the primary visual cortex

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is made by the decussation of optic fibers on the nasal side. The magnocellular pathway carries signals for detection of movement. The parvocellular pathway carries cells for detection of shape, size, colour and clarity. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is the relay centre in the thalamus for he visual pathway. It has layers of magnocellular cells and parvocellular cells that are interleaved with layers of koniocellular cells. The LGN is the main central connection for the optic nerve to the occipital lobe, particularly the primary visual cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      20
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Medicine (26/40) 65%
Cardiovascular (5/6) 83%
Gastrointestinal (3/4) 75%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Cell Biology (2/2) 100%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Passmed