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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding heparin?

      Your Answer: It activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

      There is no evidence that heparin is superior to low-molecular-weight heparins in preventing mortality from thrombosis.

      Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin but not heparin. For heparin, protamine sulphate is used to counteract its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      187.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache...

    Correct

    • You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache in the Emergency Department. The patient has signs of cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure.

      You discuss the case with the on-call neurology registrar and decide to prescribe Mannitol. The nurse assisting you asks you to reconsider this management plan as she suspects the patient has a contraindication to Mannitol.

      Out of the following, what is a contraindication to mannitol?

      Your Answer: Severe cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.

      Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:
      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer: It causes shortening of the QT interval

      Correct Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.

      The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:

      Arrhythmias
      Corneal microdeposits
      Hepatic disorders
      Hyperthyroidism
      Hypothyroidism
      Hepatic disorders and jaundice
      Nausea
      Peripheral neuropathy
      Respiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)
      Sleep disturbance
      Skin reactions
      QT prolongation

      Amiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.

      Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      99.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This has been happening since she began taking a new antihypertensive medication a few weeks ago.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to be the cause of this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker that is frequently used to treat hypertension. Ankle swelling is a very common side effect of calcium-channel blockers, and it occurs quite frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      80.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man...

    Correct

    • Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man develops hypothyroidism.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - After collapsing at home, a 62-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Correct

    • After collapsing at home, a 62-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is rushed to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which reveals ventricular tachycardia. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of these statements about amiodarone is correct?

      Your Answer: It is expressed in breast milk

      Explanation:

      Antiarrhythmic drug amiodarone is used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III antiarrhythmic that works by prolonging the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, where potassium permeability is normally high and calcium permeability is low.

      Dronedarone is sometimes used instead of amiodarone in certain situations. Although amiodarone is more effective than dronedarone, dronedarone has fewer side effects.

      Grapefruit juice inhibits the metabolism of amiodarone.

      The plasma half-life of amiodarone is very long, ranging from 2 weeks to 5 months. The half-life is about 2 months on average.
      Because amiodarone is excreted in breast milk, it should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      68.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall...

    Correct

    • You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.

      The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.
      The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:

      1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanide
      Act on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.

      2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
      Act on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.

      3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitol
      Increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.

      4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactone
      Acts in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.

      5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamide
      Inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of general malaise, nausea, and vomiting. She is perplexed and declares that everything 'looks yellow.' Her potassium level is 6.8 mmol/l, according to a blood test.

      Which of the drugs listed below is most likely to be the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, it can cause toxicity both during long-term therapy and after an overdose. Even when the serum digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range, it can happen.

      Acute digoxin toxicity usually manifests itself within 2-4 hours of an overdose, with serum levels peaking around 6 hours after ingestion and life-threatening cardiovascular complications following 8-12 hours.

      Chronic digoxin toxicity is most common in the elderly or those with impaired renal function, and it is often caused by a coexisting illness. The clinical signs and symptoms usually appear gradually over days to weeks.

      The following are characteristics of digoxin toxicity:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea
      Abdominal pain
      Confusion
      Tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias
      Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision)
      Hyperkalaemia (early sign of significant toxicity)

      Some precipitating factors are as follows:
      Elderly patients
      Renal failure
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Hypokalaemia
      Hypomagnesaemia
      Hypercalcaemia
      Hypernatraemia
      Acidosis
      Hypothyroidism
      Spironolactone
      Amiodarone
      Quinidine
      Verapamil
      Diltiazem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient....

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to your Emergency Department resuscitation area to see a patient. You consider giving him an atropine shot because he is severely bradycardic.

      Which of the following statements about the use of atropine is correct?

      Your Answer: It is recommended in the treatment of haemodynamically stable bradycardias

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      At muscarinic receptors, atropine blocks the action of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, it inhibits the vagus nerve’s effects on both the SA and AV nodes, increasing sinus automaticity and facilitating AV node conduction.

      The most common cause of asystole during cardiac arrest is primary myocardial pathology, not excessive vagal tone, and there is no evidence that atropine is helpful in the treatment of asystole or PEA. As a result, it is no longer included in the ALS algorithm’s non-shockable section. Atropine is most commonly used in the peri-arrest period. It is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischaemia
      Heart failure

      Atropine is also used for the following purposes:
      Topically as a cycloplegic and mydriatic to the eyes
      To cut down on secretions (e.g. in anaesthesia)
      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with
      Atropine’s side effects are dose-dependent and include:
      Mouth is parched
      Vomiting and nausea
      Vision is hazy
      Retention of urine
      Tachyarrhythmias
      It can also cause severe confusion and hallucinations in patients, especially the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      39.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (8/10) 80%
Pharmacology (8/10) 80%
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