-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is the most likely aetiology for her condition?
Your Answer: Familial male gonadotropin-independent precocity
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. Central precocious puberty is mostly idiopathic, but other causes include congenital or prolonged, untreated hypothyroidism, congenital or acquired central nervous system pathologies, and several genetic syndromes like Silver-Russell syndrome. The other mentioned choices cause peripheral or false precocious puberty.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She seems lethargic and has a blood glucose of 24 mmol/l. Which of the following defines diabetes, according to the World Health Organization?
Your Answer: Single fasting glucose > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms
Explanation:WHO states that diabetes can be diagnosed from a single fasting glucose of > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms or a glucose level of > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after a glucose load. Two fasting glucose levels of > 7.0 mmol/l on separate occasions can also fit the diagnosis in the absence of characteristic symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?
Your Answer: Lipohypertrophy
Explanation:Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer: Chronic renal failure (CRF)
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
Your Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure
Explanation:Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Tall stature is NOT a characteristic finding in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Weaver syndrome
Correct Answer: Laurence-Moon Syndrome
Explanation:A height that is above the 97th percentile for age and sex is described as a tall stature. The most common cause of tall stature is constitutional or familial, followed by nutritional causes. Hormonal causes of tall stature include hyperthyroidism, growth hormone excess, and precocious puberty. Some important chromosomal and syndromic causes of tall stature are Klinefelter’s syndrome, homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome, Sotos syndrome, Beckwith-Weidman syndrome, and Weaver syndrome. Laurence-Moon syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by short stature, retinitis pigmentosa, and spastic paraplegia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer: Is best treated with increased evening insulin dose
Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome
Explanation:McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?
Your Answer: 8 years of age
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prader Willi syndrome
Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer: Abscess
Correct Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding bone age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Girl's growth plates close around age 13 to 15 years
Explanation:Bone age is a valuable tool for determining the skeletal maturation in children. An X-ray of the left hand and wrist or knee is used to calculate bone age, which is then compared with the chronological age of the subject to know if the bone age is advanced or delayed. Certain standardized methods are used to score skeletal maturity, the most common methods are the Tanner-Whitehouse (TW) and Greulich-Pyle (GP) methods. The growth plate comprises a resting zone, a proliferative zone, hypertrophic cartilage zone, calcified cartilage zone, and then the ossification zone. This is the zonal distribution from the epiphysis to the diaphysis. After the closure of growth plates, spinal growth still occurs to some extent, adding up to the final height. The growth plates in boys close at around 17 to 19 years of age, while in girls, they close at around 13 to 15 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In about 5% of boys, precocious puberty is inherited from the father
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally earlier age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. The onset of normal puberty is triggered by gonadotropic-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.In most of the familial cases, the condition is transmitted by affected father. In boys, this makes up about 5% of the cases.Full adult height potential is not achieved in patients of precious puberty, although there is an advanced bone maturation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6)sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144)potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9)calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.What could be the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH| also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Di-George syndrome
Explanation:Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:- Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.- Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.- Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GnRH stimulation test
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast development
Explanation:The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia
Explanation:Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with primary amenorrhoea and poor pubertal development. Investigations reveal low oestrogen, and high LH and FSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 years
Explanation:Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon
Explanation:The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.Dawn phenomenon:This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:- Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.- Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.- Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.- Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Explanation:Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty
Explanation:Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A child presents with signs of hypothyroidism. The doctors suggest a combined pituitary function test to evaluate his responses to an IV injection of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH). Which of the following would suggest secondary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low baseline TSH level
Explanation:A low serum free T4 level with a low, or normal serum TSH level would indicate secondary hypothyroidism. A normal TSH response to TRH is a rise at 20 minutes post-dose and then a fall by 60 minutes, while a normal prolactin response would be a rise at 20 minutes and then a fall by 60 minutes. A continued rise of TSH at 60 minutes implies hypothalamic damage. Secondary hypothyroidism is indicated by a low baseline TSH level, while primary hypothyroidism is demonstrated by a raised TSH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)