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  • Question 1 - With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It is responsible for the suppression of proto-oncogenes

      Correct Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA

      Explanation:

      The p53 protein is a crucial tumor suppressor and plays several key roles in maintaining cellular integrity:

      1. Nuclear transcription factor: p53 is a nuclear transcription factor that regulates the expression of various genes involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair, apoptosis, and senescence.
      2. DNA repair: p53 permits repair of mutations and other defects in DNA (not RNA). It activates the transcription of genes involved in DNA repair mechanisms, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with the cell cycle.
      3. Cell cycle regulation: p53 can induce the expression of p21, a protein that inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases, thereby halting the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint to allow time for DNA repair or to trigger apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Mutations in p53 may fail to halt the cell cycle, allowing mutations to persist and potentially leading to cancer.
      4. Apoptosis: If DNA damage is extensive and cannot be repaired, p53 triggers apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells.
      5. Suppression of proto-oncogenes: p53 indirectly contributes to the suppression of proto-oncogenes by preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA, thereby reducing the risk of oncogenic transformation.

      Given these functions, the statement that p53 “permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA” is incorrect, as p53 is primarily involved in the repair of DNA, not RNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?

      Your Answer: The two strands twist to form a double helix with major and minor grooves.

      Correct Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.

      Explanation:

      The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true? ...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer: Mutations in P53 have been found in almost all tumours

      Correct Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein

      Explanation:

      P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Limited lumbar spine motion on physical examination

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

      Your Answer: A, D, E, K

      Explanation:

      Vitamins are classified as either fat soluble (vitamins A, D, E and K) or water soluble (vitamins B and C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer: SGLT2

      Correct Answer: SGLT1

      Explanation:

      SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Telomeres are best described as: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomeres are best described as:

      Your Answer: A complex repetitive glycoprotein structure at the end point of DNA protecting the DNA from damage.

      Correct Answer: A repetitive DNA sequence at the end of a DNA molecule.

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except: ...

    Correct

    • Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except:

      Your Answer: Binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin

      Explanation:

      In the excitation contraction coupling model, an action potential is transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors. These are voltage gates calcium channels. Calcium binds to calmodulin during contraction of the smooth muscle and not the cardiac muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication?

      Your Answer: Ornithine transcarbamylase

      Explanation:

      Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency also known as OTC deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder in humans. Ornithine transcarbamylase, the defective enzyme in this disorder is the final enzyme in the proximal portion of the urea cycle, responsible for converting carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine into citrulline. OTC deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, meaning males are more commonly affected than females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which...

    Correct

    • Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists. Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma). Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Correct

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      173
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: Respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?

      Your Answer: Splenic cords - white pulp

      Correct Answer: Periarteriolar lymphoid sheets - T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The spleen consists of:Red pulp – responsible for mechanical filtration of red blood cells. Red pulp contains sinusoids, which are filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers and a marginal zoneWhite pulp – responsible for active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways. Composed of nodules, called Malpighian corpuscles. These are composed of: lymphoid follicles, rich in B-lymphocytes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths, rich in T-lymphocytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows: WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7)Platelets: 81Hb: 10.5ESR: 56CRP: 43PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking out to the toilet.Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration.What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      93
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Correct

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE. The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      77
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation. Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose. Other options are true:By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine. Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      84.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to? ...

    Incorrect

    • The positive inotropic effect of digoxin is due to?

      Your Answer: Increased intracellular c amp

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the sodium potassium ATPase in the myocardium

      Explanation:

      Digitalis compounds are potent inhibitors of cellular Na+/K+-ATPase. This ion transport system moves sodium ions out of the cell and brings potassium ions into the cell. By inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase, cardiac glycosides cause the intracellular sodium concentration to increase. This then leads to an accumulation of intracellular calcium via the Na+/Ca++ exchange system. In the heart, increased intracellular calcium causes more calcium to be released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C, which increases contractility (inotropy).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?

      Your Answer: GLUT 7

      Correct Answer: GLUT 2

      Explanation:

      Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Viridans Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, that are present in the mouth are the most frequently isolated microorganisms when the infection is acquired in a community setting. In contrast, Staphylococcus blood stream infections are frequently acquired in a health care setting where they can enter the blood stream through procedures that cause break in the integrity of skin like surgery, catheterisation or during access of long term indwelling catheters or secondary to intravenous injection of recreational drugs.Prosthetic valve endocarditis is commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis as it is capable of growing as a biofilm on plastic surfaces

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following makes up the thick filaments in muscle fibers? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following makes up the thick filaments in muscle fibers?

      Your Answer: Myosin

      Explanation:

      The thick filaments are made up of myosin and the thin filaments are made up of actin. The thick filaments are twice the size of the thin filaments and are aligned to form the A band. The thin filaments extending out from the A band form the less dense I bands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Superoxide dismutase

      Explanation:

      As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      97.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following causes an increase in venous return? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?

      Your Answer: An increase in the negative intra-thoracic pressure

      Explanation:

      During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure becomes more negative and intra-abdominal pressure more positive. This increases the venous pressure gradient from abdomen to thorax and promotes filling of the central veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight

      Your Answer: It is associated with the development of Burkitt's lymphoma.

      Correct Answer: It is sexually transmitted.

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called: ...

    Correct

    • An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called:

      Your Answer: Hyperalgesia

      Explanation:

      Allodynia is the sensation of pain following non-painful stimulation.

      Hyperalgesia is enhanced intensity of pain sensation.

      Causalgia is a constant burning pain resulting from peripheral nerve injury.

      Hyperesthesia is the abnormal increase in sensitivity to stimuli of sense.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the average life span of eosinophils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of eosinophils?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 18 hours

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils have a circulating half-life of approximately 18 hours and a tissue life span of at least 6 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?

      Your Answer: Lacrimal puncta

      Correct Answer: Canal of schlemm

      Explanation:

      Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper...

    Incorrect

    • An 82 year old man arrives at the clinic with painful right upper arm that he has been experiencing for the last few months. The pain is gradually worsening and often wakes him up at night. He is a known case of Paget's disease involving his lumbar spine and pelvis and is currently taking oral bisphosphonates. On examination, shoulder movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his arm pain?

      Your Answer: Osteonecrosis

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Paget’s accelerates the remodelling process with old bone breaking down more quickly which disrupts the normal growth process. New bone development eventually adjusts to the faster pace and speeds up on its own. The pace is too fast for healthy bone growth, and the regrowth ends up softer and weaker than normal. The effect of this accelerated process causes bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Since osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer linked to abnormal bone growth, this makes it a rare but possible complication of Paget’s disease although the chances of developing osteosarcoma are minimal. Fractures are painful and restrict movement whereas this patients pain is gradually developing. Pain associated with osteoarthritis is usually mild to moderate and worsens as the day progresses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      24.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cell Biology (1/2) 50%
Medicine (13/30) 43%
Genetics (1/4) 25%
Cardiovascular (3/6) 50%
Connective Tissue (0/3) 0%
Haematology (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Passmed