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  • Question 1 - A suspected recreational drug user was brought to the Emergency department in an...

    Correct

    • A suspected recreational drug user was brought to the Emergency department in an unconscious state, and was found to be hypoventilating. Which of the following set of arterial blood gas analysis report is most consistent with hypoventilation as the primary cause? pH, pa(CO2) (mmHg), pa(O2) (mmHg).

      Your Answer: 7.28, 55, 81

      Explanation:

      Hypoventilation (or respiratory depression) causes an increase in carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) and respiratory acidosis. It can result due to drugs such as alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, opiates, mechanical conditions or holding ones breath. Strong opioids such as heroin and fentanyl are commonly implicated and can lead to respiratory arrest. In recreational drug overdose, acute respiratory acidosis occurs with an increase in p(CO2) over 45 mm Hg and acidaemia (pH < 7.35)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate...

    Correct

    • After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?

      Your Answer: Serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of massive splenomegaly in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of massive splenomegaly in a 35-year old gentleman?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of massive splenomegaly include chronic myelogenous leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, lymphoma, hairy cell leukaemia, myelofibrosis, polycythaemia vera, sarcoidosis, Gaucher’s disease and malaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?

      Your Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration?

      Your Answer: Homogeneous, ground-glass, pink-staining appearance of cells

      Explanation:

      The characteristic morphological features of hyaline degeneration is ground-glass, pinking staining cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane. The accumulation of lipids, calcium salts, lipofuscin and an amorphous cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane are all characteristically found in different situations.

      Pyknotic nucleus and orphan Annie eye nucleus are not seen in hyaline degeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Correct

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a...

    Correct

    • A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35 year-old woman is undergoing thyroidectomy. The external laryngeal nerve may be...

    Correct

    • A 35 year-old woman is undergoing thyroidectomy. The external laryngeal nerve may be injured whilst ligating this artery during the procedure due to its close relationship?

      Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The superior thyroid artery arises from the external carotid artery just below the level of the greater cornu of the hyoid bone and ends in the thyroid gland. This artery must be ligated at the thyroid when conducting a thyroidectomy. If the artery is severed, but not ligated, it will bleed profusely. In order to gain control of the bleeding, the surgeon may need to extend the original incision laterally to ligate the artery at its origin at the external carotid artery. The external laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve courses in close proximity to the superior thyroid artery, making it at risk for injury during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Correct

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What occurs during cellular atrophy? ...

    Correct

    • What occurs during cellular atrophy?

      Your Answer: Cell size decreases

      Explanation:

      Atrophy is the decrease in the size of cells, tissues, or organs. There are several causes including inadequate nutrition, poor circulation, loss of hormonal support or nerve supply, disuse, lack of exercise, or disease. An increase in cell size is termed hypertrophy which is distinguished from hyperplasia, in which the cells remain approximately the same size but increase in number.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Urology
      • Pathology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.

      The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.

      The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.

      Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The pudendal nerve is derived from? ...

    Correct

    • The pudendal nerve is derived from?

      Your Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve derives it’s fibres from the ventral branches of the second, third and fourth sacral nerves (S2,3,4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right axillary node involvement. She underwent radical mastectomy of her right breast. The histopathology report described the tumour to be 4 cm in its maximum diameter with 3 axillary lymph nodes with evidence of tumour. The most likely stage of cancer in this patient is:

      Your Answer: IIIA

      Correct Answer: IIB

      Explanation:

      Stage IIB describes invasive breast cancer in which: the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; small groups of breast cancer cells — larger than 0.2 millimetre but not larger than 2 millimetres — are found in the lymph nodes OR the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; cancer has spread to 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes or to lymph nodes near the breastbone (found during a sentinel node biopsy) OR the tumour is larger than 5 centimetres but has not spread to the axillary lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part...

    Correct

    • The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?

      Your Answer: Inferior meatus

      Explanation:

      The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      191.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Correct

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Touch

      Correct Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be a carcinogen for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be a carcinogen for:

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Correct Answer: B-cell lymphoma

      Explanation:

      EBV is known to be carcinogenic for B-cell lymphoma, nasopharyngel carcinoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology; Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound...

    Correct

    • A 26-year old man is brought to the A&E with a stab wound to the chest. The wound is in a part of the left lung that might partially fill the costomediastinal recess in full respiration. Where did the weapon strike this man?

      Your Answer: Lingula

      Explanation:

      During full inspiration, the lingual-of the left lung partially fills the costomediastinal recess. If the apex of the lung is fully filled with air, it would occupy the copula (the part of the pleura that extends above the first rib). The hilum is part of the lung where the neurovascular structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung and doesn’t expand on inspiration. The middle lobe can expand to fill the costomediastinal recess, however, the middle lobe is on the right lung. The inferior lobe, during full inspiration, might fill the costodiaphragmatic recess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure...

    Correct

    • During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure that lies immediately anterior to the thoracic duct. Which structure is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      In the mid-thorax, the azygos vein, thoracic duct and aorta (in this order from right to the left) are all located posterior to the oesophagus. The superior vena cava, left internal jugular vein and trachea are not found in the mid thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 8 year old boy presents with a history of repeated bacterial/pyogenic infections....

    Correct

    • An 8 year old boy presents with a history of repeated bacterial/pyogenic infections. He had a normal recovery from chickenpox and measles and shows normal antibody response. A decrease in which of the cell types can best explain this history of repeated pyogenic infections?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the number of granulocytes, particularly neutrophils is known as agranulocytosis and it increases the susceptibility of an individual towards recurrent infections. Neutropenia can be either due to decreased production or increased elimination of neutrophils.

      Ineffective agranulopoiesis is seen in: 1. myeloid stem cell suppression, 2. disease conditions associated with granulopoiesis such as megaloblastic anaemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, 3. rare genetic diseases, 4. splenic sequestration and 5. increased peripheral utilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted...

    Correct

    • A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted in him unable to move the proximal radioulnar joint of his right arm. Which muscles was affected?

      Your Answer: Pronator teres

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the pronator teres muscle. This muscle arises from 2 heads of origin: the humerus and ulnar. Between the 2 heads is the site of entrance of median nerve to the forearm. This muscle acts on the proximal radio-ulnar joint to rotate the radius on the ulna, otherwise known as pronation. It also assists in forearm flexion if the radius is fixed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with...

    Correct

    • A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.

      Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.

      Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where? ...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.

      The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)

      The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):

      G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone

      F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids

      R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.

      Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.

      Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.

      Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.

      Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past...

    Correct

    • A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Correct

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (4/6) 67%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (2/2) 100%
Pathology (7/9) 78%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (4/4) 100%
Anatomy (15/15) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (2/2) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (5/5) 100%
Head & Neck (3/3) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Urology (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology; Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Passmed