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  • Question 1 - Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.

      Explanation:

      Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.5
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Aortic insufficiency, is often due to the aortic root dilation, which is idiopathic in over 80% of cases, but otherwise may result from aging, syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Bechet’s disease, reactive arthritis and systemic hypertension. Additionally, aortic insufficiency has been linked to the use of some medications and other potential causes that affect the valve directly including Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, ankylosing spondylitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. In acute cases of aortic insufficiency, the main causes are infective endocarditis, aortic dissection or trauma. Dilated cardiomyopathy is associated with the development of mitral regurgitation, not aortic regurgitation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin act by way of which second messengers in the...

    Incorrect

    • Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin act by way of which second messengers in the release of acid by parietal cells:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A and D

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine, Histamine and Gastrin receptors are located on the basolateral membrane of the parietal cell and control its activity. Stimulation of these receptors modulates the levels of protein kinases in the cell and brings about the changes from a resting to stimulated structure. Protein kinase catalyses conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP which activates the proton pump. Calcium ions increase gastric acid secretion elicited by gastrin released through a vagal mechanism, and also by a direct effect on parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance can be present in the lowest concentration before taste buds will respond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strychnine hydrochloride (bitter)

      Explanation:

      The lowest concentration of a gustatory stimulus to which the taste buds respond is considered to be the threshold concentration for that substance. The threshold concentration for strychnine is 0.0001 mm; this is because it allows the body to detect potentially dangerous substances (bitter plant components) at lower concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - The main breakdown of fatty acids (by B-oxidation) occurs in which part of...

    Incorrect

    • The main breakdown of fatty acids (by B-oxidation) occurs in which part of the cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Once inside the mitochondria, the β-oxidation of fatty acids occurs via five recurring steps:Activation by ATPOxidation by FAD,Hydration,Oxidation by NAD+,Thiolysis,The final product is acetyl-CoA, the entry molecule for the citric acid cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An organophosphate insecticide

      Explanation:

      The farmer has most likely ingested an organophosphate insecticide.Organophosphorus compounds are used widely as:• Insecticides – Malathion, parathion, diazinon, dichlorvos• Nerve gases – Soman, sarin, tabun, VX• Ophthalmic agents – Echothiophate• Antihelmintics – Trichlorfon• Herbicides – merphos• Industrial chemical (plasticizer) – Tricresyl phosphateSigns and symptoms of Organophosphorus Poisoning (OPP) can be classified as:• Muscarinic effects:o Cardiovascular – Bradycardia, hypotensiono Respiratory – Rhinorrhoea, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, cough, severe respiratory distresso Gastrointestinal – Hypersalivation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, faecal incontinenceo Genitourinary – Incontinenceo Ocular – Blurred vision, miosiso Glands – Increased lacrimation, diaphoresis• Nicotinic effects:o Muscle fasciculation, weakness, cramping, diaphragmatic failure, and autonomic side effects include: hypertension, tachycardia, and mydriasis.• Central nervous system (CNS) effects:o Anxiety, emotional lability, restlessness, confusion, ataxia, tremors, seizures, coma, apnoeaMainstay Treatment:• Decontamination• Securing Airway, Breathing and Circulation• Atropine• Pralidoxime• Benzodiazepines

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - During anaerobic glycolysis, the net production of ATP is: ...

    Incorrect

    • During anaerobic glycolysis, the net production of ATP is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Anaerobic glycolysis is the transformation of glucose to lactate when limited amounts of oxygen (O2) are available. Anaerobic glycolysis is only an effective means of energy production during short, intense exercise, providing energy for a period ranging from 10 seconds to 2 minutes. It produces 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Describe the location of the SA node: ...

    Incorrect

    • Describe the location of the SA node:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Junction of the SVC and right atrium

      Explanation:

      Anatomically the SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Normal eukaryote somatic cells have: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal eukaryote somatic cells have:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 23 pairs of chromosomes

      Explanation:

      A normal somatic eukaryotic cell contains 46 chromosomes i.e. 23 pairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following stimulates glucagon release? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edinger-Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The consensual light reflex occurs when an individual’s right eye is shielded and light shines into the left eye, constriction of the right pupil will occur, as well as the left. This is because the afferent signal sent through one optic nerve connects to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, whose axons run to both the right and the left oculomotor nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Humoral immunity is a major defence against: ...

    Incorrect

    • Humoral immunity is a major defence against:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral infections

      Explanation:

      Humoral immunity is provided by the neutralizing and non-neutralizing antibodies that are formed from the B lymphocytes. This form of immunity is most important in viral infection. Non-neutralizing antibodies increases phagocytosis of the infected cell and inhibit the ability of the virus to replicate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Somatostatin is responsible for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Somatostatin is responsible for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased gastrin release

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone secreted from the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets. It causes the inhibition of gastrin (decreasing stomach acid production), CCK (decreasing gallbladder motility), gastrin inhibitory peptide and secretin. Gastrin production is also inhibited by secretin, GIP, VIP, glucagon and calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?...

    Incorrect

    • Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dihydropyridine receptors

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ form the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors.

      Dihydropyridine receptors (DHPRs), are voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, and ryanodine receptors (RyRs), which are intracellular Ca2+ release channels, are expressed in diverse cell types, including skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      Ryanodine receptors (RyRs) are located in the sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum membrane and are responsible for the release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores during excitation-contraction coupling in both cardiac and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increase in after load

      Explanation:

      Cardiac oxygen consumption is directly related to the amount of tension that develops in the ventricles. It is increased by an increased size of heart, increased afterload, increased contractility and increased heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following phases in depolarization and repolarization of cardiac muscle cells are caused by the inactivation of Na+ channels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 1 : rapid repolarization

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Incorrect

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is safe in pregnancy and is therefore the first line management. Warfarin is teratogenic and must be avoided whilst the other options have no role to play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipase

      Explanation:

      Lipase is the principle enzyme that digest lipids. Amylase digest carbohydrates. Colipase is a co-enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase. Trypsin digest proteins and cholesterol esterase digest cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - What effect does osmotic diuresis have on net Na+ excretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What effect does osmotic diuresis have on net Na+ excretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Markedly increased Na+ excretion 

      Explanation:

      Osmotic diuresis is the increase of urination rate caused by the presence of certain substances in the small tubes of the kidneys. The excretion occurs when substances such as glucose enter the kidney tubules and cannot be reabsorbed (due to a pathological state or the normal nature of the substance). The substances cause an increase in the osmotic pressure within the tubule, causing retention of water within the lumen, and thus reduces the reabsorption of water, increasing urine output (i.e. diuresis). Sodium, chloride, potassium are markedly excreted in osmotic diuresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Incorrect

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function? ...

    Incorrect

    • Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promotion of inflammation

      Explanation:

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that has a wide variety of functions. It can cause cytolysis of certain tumour cell lines; it is involved in the induction of cachexia; it is a potent pyrogen, causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion; it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation under certain conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following is true regarding platelets? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding platelets?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normally have a half-life of about 8 days

      Explanation:

      Platelets have no cell nucleus: they are fragments of cytoplasm that are derived from the megakaryocytes of the bone marrow, and then enter the circulation. They have a half life of 5-9 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5α-reductase

      Explanation:

      The enzyme 5α-reductase synthesizes DHT from testosterone in the prostate, testes, hair follicles, and adrenal glands. This enzyme reduces the 4,5 double-bond of the testosterone. Relative to testosterone, DHT is much more potent as an agonist of the androgen receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery which supplies the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular artery

      Explanation:

      Dominance of the coronary artery system is defined by the artery that gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery. Dominance of the right coronary artery is more common (68%). It gives rise to the large posterior interventricular branch which goes down to the apex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - Which of the following concerning PR interval is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following concerning PR interval is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Always measured from the beginning of p wave to the beginning of r wave

      Explanation:

      The PR interval measures the time from the start of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization. The PR interval is only measured from the beginning of P wave to beginning of R wave if the Q wave is absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:Hb: 11.8 g/dlPlatelets: 423 x 109/lWBC: 11.2 x 109/lNa+: 143 mmol/lK+: 3.9 mmol/lUrea: 6.2 mmol/lCreatinine: 78 μmol/lUric acid: 0.45 mmol/lCiprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).Risk factors for TLS include:• Large tumour burden• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy• Rapid tumour growth rateTLS is characterized by:• Hyperuricemia• Hyperkalaemia• Hyperphosphatemia• HypocalcaemiaTreatment of TLS:• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.• Hydration• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50...

    Incorrect

    • In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relative risk=2

      Explanation:

      Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then converted to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 38 - What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver...

    Incorrect

    • In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver are known as :

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypnozoites

      Explanation:

      The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - Which of the following isoforms of Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is found in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following isoforms of Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is found in endothelial cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nos 3

      Explanation:

      There are only 3 isoforms:NOS 1: found in nervous systemNOS 2: in macrophages and other immune cellsNOS 3: In endothelial cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (1/1) 100%
Medicine (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
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