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  • Question 1 - A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive...

    Incorrect

    • A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks from completion of treatment

      Correct Answer: 1 year from completion of treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the RCOG greentop guidelines, a women who have underdone chemotherapy for GTD are advised not to conceive for 1 years after completion of the chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      82.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain...

    Correct

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the ovary where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The Ovaries lymph drains primarily to the lateral para-aortic lymph nodes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.

      Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.

      Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Presence of abnormal uterine bleeding

      Correct Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Completion of the 3rd stage of labour refers to: ...

    Correct

    • Completion of the 3rd stage of labour refers to:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the placenta and membranes

      Explanation:

      The third stage of labours starts from the delivery of the foetus to the delivery of the placenta and the membranes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).

    When she presents...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).

      When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.

      She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.

      What is the most suitable advice for this woman?

      Your Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.

      Explanation:

      The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.

      If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.

      It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.

      Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      276
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both...

    Correct

    • The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Both the female hormones, namely progesterone and oestrogen as well as the male hormones or androgens are lipid soluble. The common precursor of these is cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose...

    Correct

    • Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose pregnant mothers were treated with which drug:

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that crosses placental barrier. Tetracycline was the first line of therapy in treating infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia, rickettsia, and some spirochaetes. It has a wide range of adverse effects and is known for a unique property of being incorporated into skeletal and dental tissues at sites of active mineralization and staining of these tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?

      Your Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers

      Explanation:

      Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
      sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      110.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old lady is found to have a grossly palpable adnexal mass on her left side on pelvic examination. This is the first time it has been detected. She attained menopause at 52 years of age. The last pelvic examination, which was done 4 years ago, was normal.

      What is her most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma.

      Explanation:

      Her most likely diagnosis would be an ovarian carcinoma. Any palpable adnexal mass in a post-menopausal woman is a red flag for an ovarian malignancy and should be assumed so until proven otherwise.

      Endometrial cancer typically presents with a post-menopausal bleed and although there might be uterine enlargement, an adnexal mass is generally absent.

      It is very rare for follicular cysts to develop following menopause and it is uncommon for post-menopausal women to have a benign ovarian tumour, which is more common in younger women. A degenerating leiomyoma would be unlikely in this case, especially since her pelvic examination three years ago was normal (no history of leiomyoma noted).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      143.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage...

    Correct

    • What is the main reason for the active management of the third stage of labour?

      Your Answer: Prevent postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      According to the WHO, active management of the third stage of labour has been shown to decrease the risk of postpartum haemorrhage in vaginal births worldwide. Per the guidelines from the International Federation of Gynaecologists and Obstetricians (FIGO), the active management of the third stage is summarised as follows:
      1. The administration of a uterotonic (oxytocin, ergometrine or misoprostol), within one minute of fetal delivery,
      2.Controlled cord traction with manual support to the uterus until placental delivery
      3. Fundal massage immediately after placental delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding oogenesis & ovulation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oogenesis & ovulation:

      Your Answer: The ova survive for 3 days after ovulation

      Correct Answer: The 1st meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before ovulation

      Explanation:

      The oocyte (eggs, ova, ovum) is arrested at an early stage of the first meiosis (first meiotic) division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle) within the ovary. Following puberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a...

    Correct

    • An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?

      Your Answer: Fetal ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      276.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as ...

    Incorrect

    • WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births.
      According to WHO the perinatal period commences at 22 completed weeks (154 days) of gestation and ends seven completed days after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.

      All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel

      Explanation:

      Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

      In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first...

    Incorrect

    • During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150ml

      Explanation:

      The normal functional bladder capacity is around 400-600ml. First urge to void is typically felt when the bladder is approximately 150ml full.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate is the main buffer in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Incorrect

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36 year old women attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old women attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows Psammoma bodies. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serous

      Explanation:

      Serous tumours of the ovaries are large, cystic and spherical to ovoid in shape. They can be benign or malignant. Malignant tumours are usually nodular with irregularities in the surface where the tumour penetrates into the serosa. Psammoma bodies are a histological identification for these tumours which appear in the tips of the papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:...

    Incorrect

    • The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hegar's sign

      Explanation:

      Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old single lady comes to your clinic with two days history of minor left-sided lower abdomen ache. Her blood pressure is 125/90 mmHg, her pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.3°C.

      She is otherwise in perfect health. There is no discomfort, rebound, or guarding on the abdominal exam. On the left side of the uterus, an ultrasonographic examination reveals a 6cm solid mass lateral to the uterus.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      When symptoms are present, they may include abdominal pain, mass or swelling, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Bladder symptoms, gastrointestinal disturbances, and back pain are less frequent. When abdominal pain is present, it usually is constant and ranges from slight to moderate in intensity.

      Mucinous cystadenomas are relatively common (12% to 15% of all ovarian tumours). They can become massive. These tumours usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence.

      Corpus luteal cysts present with irregular menses, abdominal fullness due to fluid build up and pelvic pressure.

      Endometriosis mainly presents with cyclic pain at site of involvement and dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding electronic fetal monitoring, which one of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding electronic fetal monitoring, which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has low specificity but high sensitivity

      Explanation:

      There are different ways of monitoring fetal heart rate during pregnancy. It can be done by just auscultation or by electronic fetal heart rate monitoring which is done with the help of an ultrasound machine and has a low specificity but high sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress,...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.

      Which is the least likely cause of her fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Explanation:

      This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.

      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the inferior border of the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The perineal membrane is a tough fascial sheet that attaches to the sides of the urogenital triangle. it forms the inferior border of the deep pouch which lies between this and the levator ani and the superior border of the superficial pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the: ...

    Incorrect

    • After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is the hormone that is responsible for the production of milk (Lactogenesis). Oxytocin is responsible for the let down reflex during suckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the inguinal canal is the ilioinguinal nerves, the round ligament of uterus in the females and the spermatic cord with its contents in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample...

    Incorrect

    • A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Fetal Blood Sampling (FBS) should only be performed when the cervix is >3cm dilated.

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour

      Contraindications to FBS
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

      Interpretation of FBS results:
      pH >7.25 = Normal -Repeat in 1 hour if CTG remains abnormal
      7.21 to 7.24 = Borderline – Repeat in 30 minutes
      <7.20 = Abnormal - Consider delivery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy.

    Which of the following complications are possible to develop...

    Incorrect

    • Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy.

      Which of the following complications are possible to develop if warfarin is used in second trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal optic atrophy

      Explanation:

      Administration of warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters as it have the ability to cross placenta. Intake of warfarin during 6-12 weeks of gestation can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterized by the following features:
      – A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
      – Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
      – Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctata, which is evident on X-ray as stippling of the epiphyses.
      – Intellectual disability
      – Low birth weight

      As these effects are usually dose dependent, recent estimates shows that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5% in babies of women who requires warfarin throughout pregnancy.
      Later exposure as after 12 weeks, is associated with symptoms like central nervous system anomalies, including microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is presented with complete absence cerebellar vermis and enlarged fourth ventricle, and mental retardation, as well as eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia and Peter anomaly (anterior segment dysgenesis).
      Those newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters there will be blindness and other complication of exposed to warfarin in neonates include perinatal intracranial and other major bleeding episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
      10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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      Seconds
  • Question 40 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.

      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What is the incubation period for Rubella? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period for Rubella?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12-23 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of rubella is 12-23 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.

      Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.

      Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration

      Explanation:

      As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.

      Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.

      UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI

      Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.

      As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 43 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.

      Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.

      Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 44 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 45 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 46 - A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous...

    Incorrect

    • A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks’ duration.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).

      The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
      In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.

      Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.

      In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 47 - In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be: ...

    Incorrect

    • In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foetus with oesophageal-atresia

      Explanation:

      An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 48 - What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in women? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal, inferior anal and dorsal nerve of clitoris

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. The nerve gives the following branches in females: the inferior anal nerve, the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Bishop scoring is used for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Bishop scoring is used for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The success rate of induction of the labour

      Explanation:

      The Bishop score is a system used by medical professionals to decide how likely it is that you will go into labour soon. They use it to determine whether they should recommend induction, and how likely it is that an induction will result in a vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 50 - Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      Rhesus positive mothers should not get anti-D. They have Rhesus antigens and the anti-D would result in maternal blood being bound and removed from her circulation. The danger is to children born to mothers who are rhesus negative. As the mother may develop antibodies against Rhesus positive fetal blood. Therefore if the baby is Rhesus negative then there is no risk of alloimmunisation (sensitisation)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 51 - A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview,...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview, it was noted that she was a regular alcohol drinker and has been using contraceptive pills for the past 3 years.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate advice for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop alcohol now

      Explanation:

      Alcohol exposure during pregnancy results in impaired growth, stillbirth, and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Fetal alcohol deficits are lifelong issues with no current treatment or established diagnostic or therapeutic tools to prevent and/or ameliorate some of these adverse outcomes.

      Alcohol readily crosses the placenta with fetal blood alcohol levels approaching maternal levels within 2 hours of maternal intake. As there is known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy, and alcohol is a known teratogen that can impact fetal growth and development during all stages of pregnancy, the current recommendation from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Centre for Disease Control (CDC), Surgeon General, and medical societies from other countries including the Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada all recommend complete abstinence during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 53 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Incorrect

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 54 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 55 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.

      With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 56 - A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 57 - Following parturition how long does involution of the uterus take? ...

    Incorrect

    • Following parturition how long does involution of the uterus take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Involution of the uterus takes 4-6 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 58 - A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma

      Explanation:

      A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 59 - A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage is any bleeding that occurs from the female genital tract during the antenatal period after the 24+0 week of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby. The most common causes are placenta previa and placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 60 - All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is funnel shaped

      Explanation:

      The female bony pelvis is larger, broader and more of a funnel shape. The inlet is larger and oval in shape and the sides of the female pelvis are wider apart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 61 - A 16 year old girl has been referred as she has amenorrhoea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl has been referred as she has amenorrhoea. She reports never having periods. Her mother and 2 sisters menarche was at age 12. On examination you note the patient is 152cm tall and BMI 29.0 and secondary sexual characteristics are not developed. Her FSH is elevated. Prolactin is normal. What is the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is the most common chromosomal abnormality in females occurring in 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterised by short stature, webbed neck and wide carrying angle. It is also associated with renal, endocrine and CVS abnormalities. In this condition the ovaries do not completely develop and do not produce oestrogen or oocytes, thus no secondary sexual characteristic develop and neither does the girl starts menstruating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 62 - A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)

      Explanation:

      Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.

      Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 63 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 64 - A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts of thick mucoid material is found to be draining out of a large cervical erosion. She has had regular pap smears since 16 years of age, which have all been normal. Her last smear was done 4 months prior.

      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauterisation of the cervix.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in management would be to remove the cervical ectropion using cautery. This would usually be performed under anaesthesia. It can take up to a month to heal following the procedure. Vaginal pessaries and antibiotics are typically not effective.

      Indications for a cone biopsy include an abnormal pap smear, lesion suspected to be a CIN on colposcopic examination that cannot be fully visualised as well if there is a histological discrepancy between the smear and biopsy. Colposcopic examination is also unnecessary at this stage since she has not complained of any abnormal per vaginal bleed nor is her last pap smear abnormal.

      Since the discharge is now affecting the patient’s life, treatment should be given so reassuring her that no treatment is needed is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 65 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. 

      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. 

      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. 
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. 
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. 
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally.  Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. 

      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
      c) Urinalysis
      - Protein: none
      - Ketones: present

      CT scan of the head is normal. 

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 66 - A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting at 8 weeks of being pregnant. She is unable to take solid food but is capable of drinking small sips of liquids. She is concerned that she might have gastroenteritis because her partner was noted to have recently been diagnosed with it.

      Which of the following is considered the next best step to investigate given the situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia.

      The exact cause of hyperemesis gravidarum remains unclear. However, there are several theories for what may contribute to the development of this disease process such as:
      1. Hormone changes – hCG levels peak during the first trimester, corresponding to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. Estrogen is also thought to contribute to nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
      2. Changes in the Gastrointestinal System – the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
      3. Genetics – an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum has been demonstrated among women with family members who also experienced hyperemesis gravidarum.

      The average onset of symptoms happens approximately 5 to 6 weeks into gestation. The physical exam should include fetal heart rate (depending on gestational age) and an examination of fluid status, including an examination of blood pressure, heart rate, mucous membrane dryness, capillary refill, and skin turgor. A patient weight should be obtained for comparison to previous and future weights. If indicated, abdominal examination and pelvic examination should occur to determine the presence or absence of tenderness to palpation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 67 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 68 - A 26 year old primigravida woman attends A&E due to worsening vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old primigravida woman attends A&E due to worsening vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. For the past 4 weeks she has had morning sickness but for the last 4 days she has been unable to tolerate any oral fluids without vomiting and thinks she has lost weight. On questioning she has no significant past medical history prior to this pregnancy. She is currently taking the following medication:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Explanation:

      This patient has severe nausea and vomiting with ketosis and evidence of dehydration (low BP and tachycardia) in the early part of pregnancy. There is no history of diabetes and the blood glucose doesn’t indicate hyperglycaemia. This is consistent with hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 69 - What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target INR in a patient who has just been started on warfarin therapy due to a pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.0-3.0

      Explanation:

      Warfarin can be useful for management of thromboembolism. The target INR range for this medication is between 2.0-3.0 in patients with venous thromboembolism, pulmonary embolism etc. The INR range may increase to 3.0-4.0 in patients with mechanical valves. However, warfarin is not recommended in pregnancy, and Low Molecular Weight Heparin should be used for thromboprophylaxis instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 70 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria Monocytogenes is a cause of congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is food, especially unpasteurised milk. Congenital listeriosis can lead to spontaneous abortions, premature birth and chorioamnionitis. At birth, neonates may present with septicaemia, respiratory distress and inflammatory granulomatosis. The case mortality rate for listeriosis is thought to be between 20-30%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
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  • Question 71 - A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.

      Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 72 - Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose tolerance test) is diagnostic of gestational diabetes according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FPG 6.1mmol/L; 2 hour 7.8mmol/L

      Explanation:

      There are several criteria that aid in the diagnosis of gestational diabetes in pregnancy including NICE, WHO and modified WHO:
      GDM Diagnostic Criteria:
      NICE: Immediate FBG >5.6, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      WHO: Immediate FBG >6.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      Modified WHO: Immediate FBG >7.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8

      Random glucose and OGTT 2 hour readings of >11.1 are diagnostic of diabetes in non-pregnant states but are not part of the gestational diabetes criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 73 - What form is 99% of body calcium found in? ...

    Incorrect

    • What form is 99% of body calcium found in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Calcium phosphate salts are the most abundant form of calcium in the body, making up 99%. The majority of these salts are stored in the skeleton in different forms, mostly, hydroxyapatite, a lattice-like crystal composed of calcium, phosphates and hydroxide. The remaining calcium can be found in the extracellular fluid, tissues and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 74 - Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are involved in the onset of labour

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins are involved in the uterine contraction and cervical dilatation during labour. Higher prostaglandin concentrations can also lead to severe menstrual cramps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 75 - You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She complains of vaginal soreness and yellow frothy discharge. Microscopy confirms Trichomoniasis. What percentage of infected pregnant women present with yellow frothy discharge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women, and is caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. About 20-30% of women with the infection however are asymptomatic. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated and screened for other STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 76 - The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      The Mantoux test is based on type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 77 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 78 - How many days after fertilisation does the morula form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      When there are about 12-32 blastomeres, the developing human is referred to as morula. It enters the uterine cavity around the 4th day after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 79 - Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart...

    Incorrect

    • Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy.

      You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight

      Explanation:

      If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
      – excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
      – suspected baby neglect or abuse
      – suspected domestic violence
      – a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.

      A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 80 - A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal.

      What is the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
      Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.

      Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 81 - A 21 year old patient presents to the clinic with a 48 hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old patient presents to the clinic with a 48 hour history of unprotected sexual intercourse. She is not on any form of contraception. After discussion you prescribe a dose of Ulipristal 30 mg stat. Which of the following would be the appropriate advice regarding vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If vomiting occurs within 3 hours a repeat dose should be taken

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal acetate is a selective progesterone receptor modulator which regulates the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, preventing ovulation. This emergency contraceptive can be used up to five days after unprotected sexual intercourse and is given as a 30mg oral dose. If vomiting occurs within three hours, then a second tablet is needed to ensure its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 82 - Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L1,L2

      Explanation:

      Remember SYMPATHETIC is STORAGE PARASYMPATHETIC is PEEING

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A fibroid is a type of ...

    Incorrect

    • A fibroid is a type of

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leiomyoma

      Explanation:

      A fibroid is a benign smooth muscle tumour or Leiomyoma. As such it is something of a misnomer. Leiomyosarcoma and Angioleiomyoma are malignant tumours of smooth muscle under the WHO sort tissue tumour classification Rhabdomyoma is a skeletal muscle tumour Myofibroma is seen in fibromatosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 84 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 85 - A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal distress.

      Explanation:

      In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.

      Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress

      Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.

      Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 86 - The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus

      Explanation:

      Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 87 - What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post menopausal uterus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4mm

      Explanation:

      In post menopausal women the thickness of the endometrium should be 4mm or less or women on tamoxifen is should be less than 5mm. If it is more than this the patient should be worked up for endometrial carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 88 - A 27 year old patient is maintained on warfarin during pregnancy due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old patient is maintained on warfarin during pregnancy due to a mechanical mitral valve. She has read about warfarin embryopathy. Which of the following is a typical feature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stippled epiphyses

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus. It causes the formation of multiple ossification centres in the long bones. Resulting in stippled epiphyses and hence deform long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 89 - A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old patient presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal and pelvic pain. History reveals she normally has regular 28 day cycles but she missed her last period. Past medical history reveals 2 termination of pregnancy procedures in the past 3 years. The most recent one 6 months ago. She smokes 5 cigarettes per day.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely to have a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The history of multiple TOPs suggests her contraceptive methods are not reliable and her missed period is suggestive she may currently be pregnant. There is no temperature or vaginal discharge to suggest PID though this is of course possible as is appendicitis. The last termination was 6 months ago so endometritis is unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 90 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 91 - Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 weeks pregnant patient has a blood pressure of 149/98. Urine dipstick shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia is defined as hypertension of at least 140/90 mmHg recorded on at least two separate occasions and at least 4 hours apart and in the presence of at least 300 mg protein in a 24 hour collection of urine, arising de novo after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman and resolving completely by the sixth postpartum week. Significant proteinuria = urinary protein: creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 93 - Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apoptosis

      Explanation:

      Apoptosis is described as programmed cell death. The cell release certain proapoptotic mediators that regulate this cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
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  • Question 94 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 95 - At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised ...

    Incorrect

    • At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 96 - What percentage of children does delayed puberty occur in? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of children does delayed puberty occur in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development in girls beyond the age of 13, and the absence of testicular development in boys beyond the age of 14. The incidence of delayed puberty is 3%, with the condition being more common in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 97 - A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends EPU due...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends EPU due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red degeneration of fibroid

      Explanation:

      Red degeneration of fibroids is one of 4 methods of fibroid degeneration. Although uncommon outside pregnancy it is thought to be the most common form of fibroid degeneration during pregnancy and typically occurs in the 2nd trimester. It is thought to arise from the fibroid outgrowing its blood supply and haemorrhagic infarction occurs. Ultrasound will typically show a localised fluid collection (blood) within the fibroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerazette®

      Explanation:

      Traditional POP main mode of contraceptive action: thickening of cervical mucus Desogestrel-only POP main mode of contraceptive action is inhibition of ovulation Cerazette® is the only Desogestrel-only POP in the options above. Other desogestrel brands include: Aizea® Cerelle® Nacrez® The other POPs listed are considered traditional POPs and have the following compositions: Norgeston® – Levonorgestrel 30 mcg Micronor® & Noriday® – Norethisterone 350 mcg Femulen® – Ethynediol diacetate 500 mcg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 99 - Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Android

      Explanation:

      There are four types pelvic shapes:
      1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
      2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
      3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
      4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 100 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (4/5) 80%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Passmed