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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?

      Your Answer: Cephalic, breech

      Correct Answer: Cephalic, cephalic

      Explanation:

      The commonest foetal presentation in twin pregnancy is cephalic-cephalic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choriocarcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Choriocarcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis?

      Your Answer: Implantation

      Correct Answer: Haematogenous

      Explanation:

      Choriocarcinoma spreads hematogenously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      169.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.

      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      132.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: Start insulin immediately

      Correct Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in Sex Hormone Binding Globulin (SHBG)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Liver cirrhosis is known to lead to decreased levels of SHBG. Other causes of high SHBG are:
      Oestrogens e.g. oral contraceptives
      Pregnancy
      Hyperthyroidism
      Liver cirrhosis
      Anorexia nervosa
      Drugs e.g. anticonvulsants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High Coffee Consumption

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good control of blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Thee good news in regard to incontinence after childbirth is that there are many treatment options. Some common treatment options are listed below.

      Food and drinks such as coffee, citrus, spicy foods and soda can all irritate the bladder. Cutting back on or eliminating these foods may help improve incontinence symptoms. Keeping weight within a healthy BMI range, and/or focusing on losing pregnancy weight, can also help with bladder control.

      Kegels strengthen the pelvic floor, giving more control over urinary urges. Pelvic floor physical therapy can also help build muscle memory and strength. The abdominal muscles, hip muscles and pelvic floor muscles work together when a woman performs strengthening exercises like Kegels. Physical therapists identify areas of weakness in those muscle groups to help a woman build a strong core and pelvic floor.

      The bladder is a muscle that should be regularly strengthened. Scheduling urination times and then gradually increasing the amount of time in between urination can increase bladder strength.

      Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation is a nonsurgical treatment for overactive bladder and a form of neuromodulation therapy. During PTNS treatments, a doctor places a slim needle in the ankle where the tibial nerve is located. The needle delivers electrical impulses to the tibial nerve, which sends signals to the sacral nerves in the spine that control bladder and pelvic floor function. Over time, these pulses block nerve signals that are not working properly to lessen urinary incontinence symptoms.

      Evaluating lifestyle factors. Excessive coughing due to smoking or being overweight can put unnecessary strain on the pelvic floor muscles. Certain drugs such as antidepressants and antihistamines can also have an impact on urinary incontinence.
      Pessary. A pessary is a device inserted into the vagina to provide support for vaginal tissues, in turn, aiding in bladder incontinence.

      Surgical treatment options can help support the pelvic floor and may be recommended for women who have completed childbearing and have not had success with conservative therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      The major constituents of breast milk are lactose, protein, fat and water. However, the composition of breast milk is not constant; early lactation differs from late lactation, one feed differs from the next, and the composition can even change
      during a feed. Artificial infant formulas cannot therefore be identical to breast milk. In addition to IgA, breast milk contains small amounts of IgM and IgG and other factors such as lactoferrin, macrophages, complement and lysozymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      GI Tract initially forms via gastrulation from the endoderm of the trilaminar embryo around week 3. It extends from the buccopharyngeal membrane to the cloacal membrane. Later in development there are contributions from all three germ cell layers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the femoral triangles are femoral nerve, artery and the vein. Along with the femoral sheath and lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There are usually normal testes

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synovial

      Explanation:

      The SIJ is a synovial joint. The Pubic Symphysis is a Secondary Cartilaginous

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to this her menstrual periods were normal.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial laboratory test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: hCG

      Explanation:

      In women of childbearing age, the most likely cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding is pregnancy; thus, the most appropriate initial test would be an hCG level. Once pregnancy has been excluded, patient history would guide further testing. Iatrogenic causes, usually resulting from certain medicines or supplements, are the next most common cause in this age group, followed by systemic disorders. Haemoglobin and haematocrit would be appropriate only if the patient seemed acutely anaemic due to the abnormal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.2/1000

      Explanation:

      Major vessel injury is the most important potential complication when undertaking laparoscopy. It’s incidence is 0.2/1000. Bowel Injury is more common at 0.4/1000

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Hypemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hypemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.50%

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting experienced in 80% of pregnancies Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting which affects around 1.5% of women. Caused by high levels HCG. Definitions vary but most consider it to be defined by severe nausea and vomiting associated with weight loss greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight with metabolic disturbance (typically dehydration and/or ketosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.

      Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.

      Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.

      Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.

      Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for a consultation and enquires about the harmful effects of vitamin deficiencies. A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to teratogenic effects in the child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women need to get enough folic acid. The vitamin is important to the growth of the foetus’s spinal cord and brain. Folic acid deficiency can cause severe birth defects known as neural tube defects. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate during pregnancy is 600 micrograms (µg)/day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of patients with breast cancer have hypercalcaemia

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      20% of the patients with breast cancer will have hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow.

      Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of...

    Incorrect

    • In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of the following strategies is recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A Hb of less than 10.5g/l should prompt haematinics and exclusion of haemoglobinopathies

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by iron or folate deficiency, however, a wide variety of other causes may be considered, especially if the haemoglobin value is below 9.0 g/dL. A haemoglobin level of 11 g/dL or more is considered normal early in pregnancy, with the upper limit of the ‘normal range’ dropping to 10.5 g/dL by 28 weeks gestation. Haemoglobin < 10.5 g/dl in the antenatal period, one should exclude haemoglobinopathies and consider haematinic deficiency. Oral iron is 1st line treatment for iron deficiency. Anaemia not due to haematinic deficiency will not respond to any form of iron. This should be managed with transfusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

      Explanation:

      Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
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  • Question 28 - After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. If she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following combinations of physical indications is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Little guarding but marked rebound tenderness in the suprapubic region.

      Explanation:

      Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).

      When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.

      A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.

      Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.

      Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
      Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Passmed