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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features of pre-eclampsia. The drug of choice to prevent the patient going into impending eclampsia would be?
Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The drug of choice for eclampsia and pre-eclampsia is magnesium sulphate. It is given as a loading dose of 4g i/v over 5 minutes, followed by an infusion for the next 24 hours at the rate of 1g/hr. If the seizures are not controlled, an additional dose of MgSO4 2-4gm i/v can be given over five minutes. Patients with eclampsia or pre-eclampsia can develop any of the following symptoms: persistent headache, visual abnormalities like photophobia, blurring of vison or temporary blindness, epigastric pain, dyspnoea and altered mental status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:
Your Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension
Explanation:Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?
Your Answer: Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women. It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia. Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin.Â
Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg.Â
The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse. Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head. Fetal monitoring is category I. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction. The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes.Â
Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?Your Answer: Fetal malposition
Explanation:Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.
The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.
When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.
Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.
Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture. In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.
When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Testing for hepatitis B immunity (anti-HBs), and immunization if needed
Correct Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now
Explanation:Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis – Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage- Because the patient’s HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband’s infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75%, so follow-up testing is still needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since the last 12 months.
She has a history of primary infertility
Of the hormone assays listed in the options, identify the assay that would indicate pregnancy if its result is significantly elevated.Your Answer: Serum progesterone.
Correct Answer: Serum luteinising hormone {LH).
Explanation:The levels of oestradiol (E2), progesterone, and prolactin (PRL) are all elevated during early pregnancy. However these elevations cannot be solely relied on to determine if pregnancy has occurred since increased levels of these hormones can also occur in pathologic states in non-pregnant women or, in some cases, even during menstrual cycles.
The levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are suppressed in pregnancy because of the elevated E2 and progesterone levels.
The correct answer is elevated levels of luteinising hormone (LH). This is because the beta sub-units of LH and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are almost identical and therefore, hCG is measured as LH in almost all LH assays (correct answer).
The LH levels can be slightly raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome; however, it is unlikely that the levels would increase above 30 mIU/mL in this condition.
The mid-cycle levels of LH can go up to 100-150 mIU/mL. If the levels are more than 200 mlU/mL, it usually indicates pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.
Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.
With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.
Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.
Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.
From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?Your Answer: Woman with preterm labour and unknown Group B streptococcus status should have a rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococcus culture
Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage
Explanation:A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour
If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.
Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.
No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.
Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:
Your Answer: LH and FSH assays
Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months
Explanation:Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.
Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman is under your care during her pregnancy.
She has had only one previous pregnancy in which her foetus had spina bifida.
Identify the most appropriate assessment, from the following choices, that would aid in detection of spina bifida in her current pregnancy.Your Answer: Ultrasound of the fetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:An ultrasound of the foetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation is the most appropriate assessment (correct answer).
Ultrasound performed at 11-12 weeks of gestation can diagnose anencephaly, another neural tube defect, however; any vertebral column defect is unlikely to be detected.
In most cases of neural tube defects in the foetus, elevations will be noted in maternal alpha-fetoprotein levels at 12 to 15 weeks. However, it may not be possible to detect all such abnormalities and a confirmed diagnosis cannot be made.
Additionally, elevations in alpha-fetoprotein levels do not always correlate to the presence of foetal neural tube defects.
Nuchal translucency scans do not detect neural tube defects. They are performed to identify the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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Which one of the following changes are in the correct sequence regarding female puberty?
Your Answer: Thelarche, maximal growth velocity, menarche
Explanation:Thelarche means appearance of the breast tissue under the influence of oestrogen from the ovaries. It heralds the onset of puberty among girls. It is followed by an increase in growth velocity followed by menarche which is the time of first menstrual bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome. You advise her that the result will take the form of a risk score and higher risk results will be offered CVS or amniocentesis. What is the cut-off figure between low and high risk?
Your Answer: 1 in 1000
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:1 in 150 is the cut off. Where pre-natal screening shows a risk of 1 in 150 or greater invasive testing is typically offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Correct
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A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.
She complains of a fever and purulent vaginal discharge.
She add that's four days ago, she underwent a suction curettage for an unwanted pregnancy which occurred after a university party.
On examination, she has a temperature of 38.4°C.
Which organism is the most probable cause of her presentation?Your Answer: Mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.
Explanation:The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.
Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.
The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.
Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.
PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.
Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester
Explanation:CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).
The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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Turner's syndrome is characterised by :
Your Answer: Streak ovaries
Explanation:Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Bladder neck closure and relaxation of the bladder is mediated by?
Your Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L3,L4,L5
Correct Answer: Sympathetic Fibres L1,L2
Explanation:The neck of the bladder is surrounded by the internal sphincter. It is supplied by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves of the splanchnic nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation causes the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal urethral sphincter to relax. It Is predominantly by the parasympathetic nerves S2-S4. Relaxation of the bladder is caused by inhibiting the sacral parasympathetic preganglionic neurons and exciting the lumbar sympathetic preganglionic neurons. Remember SYMPATHETIC is for STORAGE and PARASYMPATHETIC is for PEEING.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?
Your Answer: Bi-ischial diameter
Correct Answer: Shape of the pubic arch
Explanation:During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32 year old women who is 25 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and cramping lower abdominal pain. On examination the cervix is closed. Fetal cardiac activity is noted on ultrasound. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage
Correct Answer: Antepartum Haemorrhage
Explanation:Antepartum haemorrhage is any bleeding that occurs from the female genital tract during the antenatal period after the 24+0 week of pregnancy and prior to the birth of the baby. The most common causes are placenta previa and placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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