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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is not caused by HPV? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not caused by HPV?

      Your Answer: Cancer of penis

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.

      HPV-related cancers include:

      Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.

      Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.

      Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.

      Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
      Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.

      Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30 year old woman with a history of two previous C section...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old woman with a history of two previous C section deliveries, is rushed to the hospital for an emergency c-section at 36 weeks gestation due to antenatal haemorrhage. Upon examination of the uterus, the placenta has invaded the myometrium but the serosa is spared. Which of the following identifies this condition?

      Your Answer: Placenta Accreta

      Correct Answer: Placenta Increta

      Explanation:

      Abnormal placental adherence to the uterus, generally termed Placenta Accreta, is divided into 3 conditions.
      – Placenta accreta: refers to the invasion of the chorionic villi beyond the decidual surface of the myometrium.
      – Placenta increta: the villi invade deep into the myometrium but spare the serosa;
      – Placenta percreta: the chorionic villi invade through the myometrium, penetrate the uterine serosa, and may invade surrounding pelvic structures.

      These conditions can predispose patients to obstetric bleeding in the third trimester, often requiring emergency intervention.

      Risk factors in the development of an abnormal placental adherence include previous c-sections. Placenta Previa, is also a cause of antepartum haemorrhage and serves as a risk factor in the development of abnormal placental adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital thrombophilia is Factor V Leiden mutation. Other congenital causes are JAK-2 mutations and the Prothrombin G20210A mutation. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 and antiphospholipid syndrome is not congenital it is an acquired thrombophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Oxytocin binds to what receptor type? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin binds to what receptor type?

      Your Answer: Alpha 1 receptors

      Correct Answer: G-protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin binds to the G protein coupled receptors that triggers the IP3 mechanism leading to an elevated intracellular calcium ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Incorrect

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer: S3

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?

      Your Answer: 2B

      Explanation:

      This is stage 2B.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension 2 Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prevention of thrombosis

      Explanation:

      The properties of oestrogen:
      Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
      reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
      Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
      Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
      Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
      ketone formation, increases fat deposition
      Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
      Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      54.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan but refuses serum markers. You advise her the False Positive Rate of the scan is 5%. What would you advise the mother regarding the detection rate of Down Syndrome using NT alone?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      The nuchal lucency measurement is the measure of the nuchal pad thickness. Children with down syndrome have an increased thickness of the nuchal pad. The risk of down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. The nuchal lucency test has an accuracy rate of 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      31
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Management (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Passmed