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  • Question 1 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The chemoreceptor trigger zone is located inside the blood brain barrier

      Correct Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer: Prilocaine toxicity

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:

      Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
      Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l

      If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?

      Your Answer: 65 ml/hr 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose

      Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose

      Explanation:

      Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.

      The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.

      Body weight Fluid volume
      first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
      next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
      >20 kg 1 ml/kg/hr

      In the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.

      A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.

      A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.

      If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

      If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.

      She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.

      What is your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment

      Explanation:

      The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.

      The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.

      Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.

      Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.

      In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.

      However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 5 - Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.

      The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.

      PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be “blind” on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
      What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production

      Explanation:

      Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.

      Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA

      Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 8 - Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

      SEM = SD / square root (n)

      where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size

      Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.

      If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.

      A 95% confidence interval:

      lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)

      upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)

      Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).

      Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 9 - Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
      The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 10 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 11 - A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic...

    Incorrect

    • A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.

      The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 12 - A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.

      How the data would be analysed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.

      ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.

      In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 13 - Which of these statements regarding the basilar artery and its branches is not...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements regarding the basilar artery and its branches is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest branch arising from the distal portion of the vertebral artery which forms the basilar artery. It is one of the arteries responsible for providing blood supply to the brain’s cerebellum.

      The labyrinthine artery (auditory artery) is a long and slender artery which arises from the basilar artery and runs alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus.

      The posterior cerebellar artery is one of two cerebral arteries supplying the occipital lobe with oxygenated blood. It is usually bigger than the superior cerebellar artery. It is separated from the vessel near its origin by the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 14 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Incorrect

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 16 - You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (Age + 4) 2 = Weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.

      The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.

      The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.

      To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.

      When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.

      Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.

      Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to hospital complaining of dysphagia. He is scheduled for a rigid oesophagoscopy.

      On examination, He is noted to have severe osteoarthritis in his cervical spine resulting in limited rotation and flexion-extension. He has no other neurological signs or symptoms.

      He is given anaesthesia for the procedure, which is complicated by a difficult intubation (Cormack-Lehane 3), but was eventually achieved using a gum elastic bougie.

      After recovering from anaesthesia, he is examined and found to have severe motor weakness of upper limbs, and mild motor weakness of lower limbs, bladder dysfunction and sensory loss of varying degrees below the level of C5.

      What incomplete spinal cord lesion is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most commonly occurring type of partial spinal cord lesion. It is more likely to occur in older patients with cervical spondylosis and a hyperextension injury. The injury to the spinal cord occurs in the grey matter causing the following symptoms:

      Disproportionally higher motor function weakness in the upper limbs than in lower limbs
      Dysfunction of the bladder
      Degrees of sensory loss below the level of the lesion

      An anterior spinal artery infarction will interrupt the corticospinal tract resulting in paralysis of motor function, loss of pain and temperature sensation, all occurring below the level of the injury.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome occurs as a result of the hemisection of the spinal cord. Its symptoms include ipsilateral upper motor neurone paralysis and loss of proprioception, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

      Spinal cord infarctions rarely occur in the posterior spinal artery.

      Cauda equina syndrome occurs as a result of compression of the lumbosacral spinal nerve roots below the level of the conus medullaris. Injury to these nerves will cause partial or complete loss of movement and sensation in this distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 19 - During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that...

    Incorrect

    • During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.

      How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (43.9-37.3)

      ARR= 6.6

      NNT= 1000/6.6

      NNT=151.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg codeine

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (age + 4) 2 = weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:

      Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
      Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
      Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
      15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
      Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.

      Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.

      The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

      Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

      Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 22 - A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively.

      What is the value of absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)

      ARR= 0.2-0.25

      ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)

      ARR= 5%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 23 - The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day,...

    Incorrect

    • The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.

      Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

      Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

      The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 24 - All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

      It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

      Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

      Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation.

      His readings are listed below:

      Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%
      Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg

      Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9.5

      Explanation:

      Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:

      CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)

      Where,

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant
      Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
      SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
      PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHg

      Therefore,

      CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)

      CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 26 - The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these...

    Incorrect

    • The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these ions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium ions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic.

      During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups.

      Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs.

      What is the most important first step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.

      The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.

      The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.

      Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.

      A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:

      Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
      Cauda equina syndrome
      Paralysis of the lower extremities.
      If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
      Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
      Meningism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 28 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 30 - The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass...

    Incorrect

    • The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass with 0.6. This water is diffused into distinct compartments.

      Which fluid compartment can be measured indirectly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intracellular volume

      Explanation:

      The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.

      For a man, it is subdivided into:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
      Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).

      The ECF volume is further divided into:

      Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
      Plasma = 3 litres
      Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.

      Directly measured fluid compartments:

      Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
      Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
      Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
      Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.

      Indirectly measured fluid compartments:

      Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
      ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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