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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring of the legs, presents with delayed walking. She was born by breech delivery. Clinical examination reveals absence of fever and no dysmorphism. Although the limbs look symmetrical and equal, the right leg seems to be shorter. The girl is otherwise healthy. Neurological examination reveals hypotonia with normal reflexes and power. The mother confirms there is no history of myelomeningocele, cerebral palsy, or birth asphyxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: Congenital dislocation of the hip
Explanation:In this particular case, the symptoms and signs are suggestive for congenital dislocation of the hip. There are several risk factors present including, a breech delivery, female gender (female:male = 6:1) and oligohydramnios. It is also more common in the left hip than the right.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
Correct Answer: Conservative treatment
Explanation:Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is worried that her daughter might be using illicit substances. The patient is sweating and appears agitated, talkative and is repeatedly clenching her jaw. She has generalized piloerection. She has most likely taken which of the following substances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)
Explanation:3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception (awareness of surrounding objects and conditions). It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens, producing feelings of increased energy, pleasure, emotional warmth, and distorted sensory and time perception. MDMA’s effects last about 3 to 6 hours, although many users take a second dose as the effects of the first dose begin to fade. Over the course of the week following moderate use of the drug, a person may experience:irritabilityimpulsiveness and aggressiondepressionsleep problemsanxietymemory and attention problemsdecreased appetitedecreased interest in and pleasure from sex
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cautery
Explanation:In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby’s blood group was A rhesus negative and mother’s blood group O Rhesus negative.Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ABO incompatibility
Explanation:Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high‐titre anti‐(group B) IgG
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative risk=2
Explanation:Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which is not a variation of lichen planus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sclerotic
Explanation:The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behçet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration
Explanation:Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The following is a sleep-related hormone released in an intermittent manner:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Hormones can be secreted in a number of different ways, thus plasma levels of each may vary throughout the day. Many of these exhibit intermittent secretion related to sleep (growth hormone, and prolactin), while others are released based on circadian rhythms (cortisol). Some are released in a pulsatile fashion throughout the day such as FSH, LH, Thyroxine, while others are stress related like cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference
Explanation:The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: US abdomen
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is counselled about the changes that will occur in her body with puberty.In what order do these pubertal changes occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast buds, growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair
Explanation:Three physical changes – breast budding, pubic hair growth, and axillary hair growth in the order mentioned precede menarche. These changes are due to oestrogen, a hormone essential for pubertal development.The various pubertal changes in males include:-Testicular growth: It is the first sign of puberty occurring at around 12 years of age (Range = 10 – 15 years).- Testicular volume: An increase in the volume of testicles to 4 ml indicates the onset of pubertyThe various pubertal changes in females include:- The first sign is breast development at around 11.5 years of age (range = 9-13 years)- Followed by the onset of height spurt reaching the maximum in puberty (at 12 years of age)- The final change that occurs is termed menarche at 13 (11-15) years of age.Some of the other pubertal changes include:- Gynecomastia may develop in boys- Asymmetrical breast growth may occur in girls- Diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve
Explanation:The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile spasms
Explanation:Epilepsy is a common paediatric neurologic disorder characterized by seizures of varying frequency and intensity. There are many childhood or infantile epilepsy syndromes that can be categorized as benign epilepsy syndromes as the child suffering from these usually outgrows them after reaching a certain age, and they do not lead to significant cognitive or physical impairment. Some of these may not need any treatment. Such benign epilepsy syndromes include benign rolandic epilepsy, Panayiotopoulos syndrome, Gastaut type-idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy, and idiopathic photosensitive occipital lobe epilepsy. West syndrome, also called infantile spasms, is a serious infantile epileptic encephalopathy, characterized by multiple clusters of myoclonic spasms, and regression of the previous normally attained milestones. It is associated with severe cognitive and physical impairment, often leading to life long disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers of her school have brought to their attention that she struggles to see the whiteboard in class. The parents have also noticed that she has difficulty when looking at the computer.Except for being a nervous reader at times, the parents haven't noticed anything else unusual. She's otherwise healthy and plays well with her friends.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refractive error
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the child most probably is suffering from a refractive error.Astigmatism, myopia and high hypermetropia could all cause these symptoms. This child has difficulty in using vision for finer tasks such as reading. Mild to moderate refractive error would not impair the child’s ability to play or even watch television as for the child in question. Note: Refractive error is the most common treatable cause of reduced vision in children all over the world! Other options:- A congenital cataract is rare and retinal dystrophy is even rarer. – Amblyopia would suggest poor vision in only one eye, something that might not cause symptoms in this age group. – Parents or teachers would have probably noticed squint if it was present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years, and now receives a mixture of bottle feeds and breast milk. The mother of the child wants advice on how to wean the baby. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate advice to give the mother?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infant led weaning can be tried first if the mother is happy with this
Explanation:At the age of 6 months, children can begin to be weaned off breastmilk and formula feeds. One healthy and inexpensive way to do this is through infant led weaning as opposed to the conventional spoon feeding method. Children are able to enjoy a variety of soft finger foods even before they grow teeth, so all food does not need to be pureed or sweet. Children should however not be given cow’s milk until the age of 1 year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6–9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He weights 1000g. What of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Visual screening is not useful if carried out at this gestational age
Explanation:Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) affects premature infants. It is a retinal vasoproliferative disease for which current screening guidelines are primarily based on birth weight and gestational age. The disease is first detected by screening at 32-38 weeks of gestation or in infants that are about 6-7 weeks old. Screening consists of dilation of the pupils and observing for dilated vessel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Leaner disease is associated with which of the given facts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is associated with failure to thrive
Explanation:Leiner disease belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders associated with permanent or temporary complement C5 plasma deficiency. It is a rare disease that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission. It is prevalent in female, breast-fed babies. The hallmark of this syndrome is severe diarrhoea, severe generalized seborrheic dermatitis, central nervous system defects, marked wasting, recurrent local and systemic infections, and failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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