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  • Question 1 - A 23-year-old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. There is no improvement despite initial treatment.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2-2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with a fever and cough. Past medical history states that he has a long history of smoking and is found to have a cavitating lesion on his chest x-ray.
       
      Which organism is least likely to be the cause of his pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterococcus faecalis

      Explanation:

      Cavitating pneumonia is a complication that can occur with a severe necrotizing pneumonia and in some publications it is used synonymously with the latter term. It is a rare complication in both children and adults. Albeit rare, cavitation is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, and less frequently Aspergillus spp., Legionella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.

      In children, cavitation is associated with severe illness, although cases usually resolve without surgical intervention, and long-term follow-up radiography shows clear lungs without pulmonary sequelae
      Although the absolute cavitary rate may not be known, according to one series, necrotizing changes were seen in up to 6.6% of adults with pneumococcal pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is another organism that is known to cause cavitation.

      Causative agents:
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis
      Klebsiella pneumoniae
      Streptococcus pneumoniae
      Staphylococcus aureus

      Enterococcus faecalis was not found to be a causative agent.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old appears at the OPD with symptoms of persistent cough and purulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old appears at the OPD with symptoms of persistent cough and purulent sputum. He is a chronic smoker and had measles in the past. Upon auscultation, inspiratory crepitation and finger clubbing are noted. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      A history of measles, whooping cough, or other severe lung infections like tuberculosis (TB) and pneumonia can lead to airway damage and possibly bronchiectasis.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.
       
      On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.
       
      What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
      The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.

      The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).

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  • Question 6 - An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman is admitted to the hospital with a community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Her medical notes state that she developed a skin rash after taking penicillin a few years ago. She has a CURB score of 4 and adverse prognostic features. Which of the following would be an appropriate empirical antibiotic choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime and erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases and is an important cause of mortality and morbidity worldwide. Typical bacterial pathogens that cause CAP include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis.
      The CURB-65 is used as a means of deciding the action that is needed to be taken for that patient.
      Score 3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit

      Recent studies have suggested that the use of a beta-lactam alone may be noninferior to a beta-lactam/macrolide combination or fluoroquinolone therapy in hospitalized patients.

      Therapy in ICU patients includes the following:
      – Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, or ampicillin/sulbactam) plus either a macrolide or respiratory fluoroquinolone
      – For patients with penicillin allergy, a respiratory fluoroquinolone and aztreonam

      Therefore the appropriate treatment would be Cefotaxime and erythromycin.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the acute medical unit with a 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the acute medical unit with a 5 day history of polyarthritis and a low-grade fever.

      Examination reveals shin lesions which the patient states are painful. Chest x-ray shows a bulky mediastinum.

      What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lofgren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of sarcoidosis characterized by erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), and polyarthralgia or polyarthritis. Other symptoms include anterior uveitis, fever, ankle periarthritis, and pulmonary involvement.

      Löfgren syndrome is usually an acute disease with an excellent prognosis, typically resolving spontaneously from 6-8 weeks to up to 2 years after onset. Pulmonologists, ophthalmologists, and rheumatologists often define this syndrome differently, describing varying combinations of arthritis, arthralgia, uveitis, erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, and/or other clinical findings.

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  • Question 8 - A 7-year-old asthmatic boy presented to the pulmonologist with an exacerbation of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old asthmatic boy presented to the pulmonologist with an exacerbation of shortness of breath for 3 days. At the time of admission, he was still experiencing breathlessness with oxygen saturation found to be less than 90%. CXR shows bilateral hyperinflation. Which of the following should be done?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas is useful for the evaluation of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange, respiratory function including hypoxia, and acid/base balance. This will quickly indicate if assisted ventilation is required for this patient.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is consolidation and a moderate sized pleural effusion on the same side. An ultrasound guided pleural fluid aspiration is performed. The appearance of the fluid is clear and is sent off for culture. Whilst awaiting the culture results, which one of the following is the most important factor when determining whether a chest tube should be placed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      In adult practice, biochemical analysis of pleural fluid plays an important part in the management of pleural effusions. Protein levels or Light’s criteria differentiate exudates from transudates, while infection is indicated by pleural acidosis associated with raised LDH and low glucose levels. In terms of treatment, the pH may even guide the need for tube drainage, suggested by pH <7.2 in an infected effusion, although the absolute protein values are of no value in determining the likelihood of spontaneous resolution or chest drain requirements. pH is therefore the most important factor.

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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits the clinic with an acute asthma attack. Which lung function abnormality is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased residual volume

      Explanation:

      Asthma is a condition characterized by airway hyperresponsiveness, which results in reversible increases in bronchial smooth muscle tone, and variable amounts of inflammation of the bronchial mucosa.
      During an acute asthma attack, the already inflamed airways narrow further due to bronchospasm, which leads to increased airway resistance. Because of the increased smooth muscle tone during an asthma attack, the airways also tend to close at abnormally high lung volumes, trapping air behind occluded or narrowed small airways. Thus the acute asthmatic will breathe at high lung volumes, his functional residual capacity will be elevated, and he will inspire close to total lung capacity. The accessory muscles of respiration are often used to maintain the lungs in a hyperinflated state.

      During episodes of acute asthma, pulmonary function tests reveal an obstructive pattern. This includes a decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory air flow (a decrease in FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio) due to the increased resistance, and a reduction in forced vital capacity (FVC) correlating with the level of hyperinflation of the lungs. Because these patients breathe at such high lung volumes (near the top of the pressure-volume curve, where lung compliance greatly decreases), they must exert significant effort to create an extremely negative pleural pressure, and consequently fatigue easily. Overinflation also reduces the curvature of the diaphragm, making it less efficient in generating further negative pleural pressure.

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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin.

      On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation.

      Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Arterial blood gas on air:

      pH 7.34
      pCO2 5.4 kPa
      pO2 9.0 kPa

      Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
      – Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      – Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      – Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      – Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
      Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
      Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
      Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)

      If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)

      For ICU patients:
      IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
      IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinolone

      If the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.

      The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements about smoking is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about smoking is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quitting is associated with average weight gain of 2 kg

      Explanation:

      A study conducted showed that the average post smoking cessation weight gain was about 2 kg.
      Withdrawal symptoms usually peak after 1-3 days and then decrease over a period of 3-4 weeks. After this time, the body has expelled most of the nicotine, and the withdrawal effects are mainly psychological.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 13 - Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cell is responsible for the production of surfactant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II pneumocyte

      Explanation:

      Type I pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the gas (oxygen and carbon dioxide) exchange that takes place in the alveoli. It is a very thin cell stretched over a very large area. This type of cell is susceptible to a large number of toxic insults and cannot replicate itself.
      Type II pneumocyte: The cell responsible for the production and secretion of surfactant (the molecule that reduces the surface tension of pulmonary fluids and contributes to the elastic properties of the lungs). The type 2 pneumocyte is a smaller cell that can replicate in the alveoli and will replicate to replace damaged type 1 pneumocytes. Alveolar macrophages are the primary phagocytes of the innate immune system, clearing the air spaces of infectious, toxic, or allergic particles that have evaded the mechanical defences of the respiratory tract, such as the nasal passages, the glottis, and the mucociliary transport system. The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 14 - An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis.
       
      She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa.
       
      On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal.
       
      Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours)
      A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation.
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%-20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.

      Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor ? (TNF-?). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrin and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates.
      Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.

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  • Question 16 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago.

      His blood pressure was found to be 143/96 mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found.

      Investigations;
       
      Hb 11.9 g/dl
      WCC 11.1 x109/l
      PLT 190 x109/l
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 μmol/l
      CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion
      Aspergillus precipitins positive

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased breathlessness, and finger clubbing. She has a history of chronic cough. What is the initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Finger clubbing and past history suggest a chronic pulmonary process going on. A CXR will allow the pathology to be visualised including any infective or cancerous causes.

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  • Question 18 - A 66-year-old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks.

      On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences.
      Investigations:
      BP is 141/72 mmHg
      Pulse 82 bpm and regular
      Sp(O2) 92% on room air
      RR 19 breaths/min
      Temperature 37.1°C.
      Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%.
       
      Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax

      Explanation:

      High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).

      HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.

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  • Question 19 - A 66-year-old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness for the past five months while doing daily tasks. His exercise tolerance is now limited to 75 metres while on a flat surface and walking up the stairs makes him breathless. He sleeps on four pillows and has swollen ankles in the morning. He occasionally coughs up phlegm.

      Past Medical history of importance:
      36 pack year smoking history
      Hypertension
      Ischaemic heart disease
      Coronary artery stenting done 10 months ago

      Pulmonary function testing revealed:
      FEV1 0.90 L (1.80 - 3.02 predicted)
      FVC 1.87 L (2.16 - 3.58 predicted)
      Diffusion capacity 3.0 mmol/min/kPa (5.91 - 9.65 predicted)
      Total lung capacity 4.50 L (4.25 - 6.22 predicted)
      Residual volume 2.70 L (1.46 - 2.48 predicted)
       
      Which condition does he have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Whilst asthma and COPD are different diseases they cause similar symptoms, which can present a challenge in identifying which of the two diseases a patient is suffering from. COPD causes chronic symptoms and narrowed airways which do not respond to treatment to open them up. In the case of asthma the constriction of the airways through inflammation tends to come and go and treatment to reduce inflammation and to open up the airways usually works well.

      COPD is more likely than asthma to cause a chronic cough with phlegm and is rare before the age of 35 whilst asthma is common in under-35s. Disturbed sleep caused by breathlessness and wheeze is more likely in cases of asthma, as is a history of allergies, eczema and hay fever. Differentiating between COPD and asthma requires a history of both symptoms and spirometry. The spirometry history should include post bronchodilator measurements, the degree of reversibility and, ideally, home monitoring which gives a history of diurnal variation.

      Airflow Obstruction: Both asthma and COPD are characterised by airflow obstruction. Airflow obstruction is defined as a reduced FEV1 and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, such that FEV1 is less than 80% of that predicted, and FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7.

      These episodes are usually associated with widespread, but variable, airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.

      COPD: COPD is a chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction (reduced FEV1 and FEV1/VC ratio) that does not change markedly over several months. The airflow obstruction is not fully reversible.

      Spirometry COPD Asthma
      VC Reduced Nearly normal
      FEV1 Reduced Reduced in attack
      FVC (or FEV6) Reduced Nearly normal
      FEV1 Ratio
      (of VC/FVC/FEV6) Reduced in attack

      This man has a low FEV1 and FVC. His diffusions capacity is also low despite having a normal total lung capacity. These values confirm a diagnosis of COPD.

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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has green sputum with streaks of blood. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with evidence of cavitation. He is a known alcoholic.

      What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella Pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
      The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions.

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  • Question 21 - Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering from pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 35/min

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score estimates the mortality of community-acquired pneumonia to help determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment.
      Select Criteria:
      Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) The CURB-65 scores range from 0 to 5. Clinical management decisions can be made based on the score:
      Score Risk Disposition
      0 or 1 – 1.5% mortality – Outpatient care
      2 – 9.2% mortality – Inpatient vs. observation admission
      > 3 – 22% mortality – Inpatient admission with consideration for ICU admission with score of 4 or 5

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  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with worsening dyspnoea, fever and cough. He works at a foundry. Vitals are as follows:
      Respiratory rate: 28/min
      Heart rate: 80 bpm
      Temp: 37.6C
      Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crepitations throughout the lung fields.
      Calcified hilar nodules are visible on the chest X-ray. Further evaluation shows an eggshell calcification on HRCT.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Silicosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis is a common occupational lung disease that is caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust. Silica is the most abundant mineral on earth. Workers that are involved for example in construction, mining, or glass production are among the individuals with the highest risk of developing the condition. Acute silicosis causes severe symptoms (e.g., exertional dyspnoea, cough with sputum) and has a very poor prognosis.
      Chronic silicosis has a very variable prognosis and affected individuals may remain asymptomatic for several decades. However, radiographic signs are usually seen early on. Typical radiographic findings are calcifications of perihilar lymph nodes, diffuse ground glass opacities, large numbers of rounded, solitary nodules or bigger, confluent opacities. Avoiding further exposure to silica is crucial, especially since the only treatment available is symptomatic (e.g., bronchodilators). Silicosis is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis and lung cancer. Berylliosis typically affects individuals who are exposed to aerospace industry. Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis do not form eggshell calcifications.

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  • Question 23 - Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A coronavirus

      Explanation:

      Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
      In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. 

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  • Question 24 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition in which a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg.

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

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  • Question 25 - Which of the following parameters is increased as a result of asthma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following parameters is increased as a result of asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Residual volume

      Explanation:

      In asthma, a reversible increase in residual volume (RV), functional residual capacity (FRC), and total lung capacity (TLC) may occur. There is a fall in FEV1, FVC and gas transfer.

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  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old patient with shortness of breath has a chest x ray, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old patient with shortness of breath has a chest x ray, which shows right lower lobe consolidation. Dyspnoea started one week ago. Which of the following would support admission of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A respiratory rate of 32/min

      Explanation:

      CURB-65 is a clinical prediction score that has been validated for predicting mortality in community-acquired pneumonia. It is comprised of five features which are given a point if present on the patient.
      C=confusion
      U=urea >7mmol/L
      R=respiratory rate >30/min or more
      B=blood pressure (SBP)<90mmHg or (DBP)<60mmHg.
      Lastly, the patient gets a point if he/she is 65-year-old or older. The score provides guidance for management:
      0-1: Treat as an outpatient
      2: Consider a short stay in hospital or watch very closely as an outpatient
      3-5: Requires hospitalization with consideration as to whether they need to be in the intensive care unit.

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  • Question 27 - A 51-year-old obese female, with a history of smoking, presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old obese female, with a history of smoking, presents to the clinic with worsening dyspnoea. She is currently on oestrogen therapy for menopausal symptoms.
      Clinical examination, ECG and radiological findings correspond to right sided heart failure. There are no signs of left ventricular dysfunction.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of cor pulmonale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent small pulmonary embolisms

      Explanation:

      Postmenopausal oestrogen therapy and hormone therapy are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism. The relative risk seems to be even greater if the treated population has pre-existing risk factors for thromboembolism, such as obesity, immobilization, and fracture. Cor pulmonale can occur secondary to small recurrent pulmonary embolisms. Pneumonias and bronchiectasis usually present with purulent sputum, and in case of carcinoma there may be other associated symptoms like weight loss, etc.

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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old woman presents with persistent cough, pyrexia, crackles and left sided chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with persistent cough, pyrexia, crackles and left sided chest pain which worsens upon deep inspiration. She has a history of smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture is very suggestive of pneumonia. Pneumonia presents with chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing, fever and localized crackles or consolidation.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old male complains of a headache that gets worse when he moves...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male complains of a headache that gets worse when he moves his head forward. From the list of options, which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic Sinusitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms such as pain worsening when bending forward, are consistent with chronic sinusitis. Sinusitis also does not present with nausea or vomiting, which is worsened by loud noises or bright lights.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history of smoking presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history of smoking presents with a persistent cough and occasional haemoptysis. A chest x-ray which is done shows no abnormality. What percentage of recent chest x-rays were reported as normal in patients who are subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.1

      Explanation:

      A retrospective cohort study of the primary care records of 247 lung cancer patients diagnosed between 1998-2002 showed that 10% of the X-rays were reported as normal.
      Other tests may include:
      – Imaging tests: A CT scan can reveal small lesions in your lungs that might not be detected on an X-ray.
      – Sputum cytology: sputum may reveal the presence of lung cancer cells.
      – Tissue sample (biopsy): A sample of abnormal cells may be removed for histological analysis. A biopsy may be performed in a number of ways, including bronchoscopy, mediastinoscopy and needle biopsy. A biopsy sample may also be taken from adjacent lymph nodes.

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