00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in all of the following cells, except:

      Your Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Correct Answer: Certain liver cells

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive nucleotide sequences to the ends of chromosomes (telomeres), preventing their shortening during cell division. Telomerase activity is crucial for cells that divide frequently and need to maintain their telomere length for continued proliferation. These include:

      • Stem cells: They have high telomerase activity to maintain their long-term proliferative capacity.
      • Germ cells: These cells also have active telomerase to ensure the stability of genetic material across generations.
      • Certain white blood cells: Some immune cells, particularly those that need to proliferate in response to infection, show telomerase activity.
      • Certain cancer cells: Many cancer cells reactivate telomerase, which contributes to their uncontrolled growth and immortality.

      However, most somatic cells, including certain liver cells, do not exhibit significant telomerase activity. While some liver cells might show low levels of telomerase activity during regeneration, it is not generally active in normal, differentiated liver cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate

      Explanation:

      Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle involves all of the following except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin

      Explanation:

      In the excitation contraction coupling model, an action potential is transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors. These are voltage gates calcium channels. Calcium binds to calmodulin during contraction of the smooth muscle and not the cardiac muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Inactive cellular marrow is called ...

    Incorrect

    • Inactive cellular marrow is called

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow marrow

      Explanation:

      The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Normal stroke volume is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal stroke volume is about:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70 ml

      Explanation:

      Stroke volume is the amount of blood that is pumped from the heart into the aorta. It is typically 70 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Causes of hair loss include:

      • Dissecting cellulitis
      • Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      • Folliculitis
      • Secondary syphilis
      • Demodex folliculorum
      • Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).

      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consists of which three cell layers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granular, purkinje, molecular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers; the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains: ...

    Incorrect

    • The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zn and Cu

      Explanation:

      The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains zinc and copper

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - During which phase of the cardiac cycle does most of the ventricular filling...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of the cardiac cycle does most of the ventricular filling occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular diastole

      Explanation:

      During the phase of ventricular diastole when the heart muscle relaxes and all the valves are open, blood flows easily into the heart. This is the phase of rapid ventricular filling. During isovolumetric contraction and relaxation the volume of blood in the heart does not change. During ventricular ejection blood enters into the aorta and pulmonary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her...

    Incorrect

    • An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's dementia. Upon clinical examination, her respiratory rate is found to be 35, and thus a bronchoscopy is recommended. According to which of the following would you obtain consent for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The procedure does not require a written consent

      Explanation:

      This is an emergency case regarding a patient with impaired cognitive functioning. This is why the procedure does not require a written consent. In any other case where the patient has a normal mental capacity, the consent would be obtained as an informed written consent. In this case however, the suggested procedure is almost a matter of life and death, the doctor being required to act on behalf of the patient to her optimal advantage. Under English law no other person can consent to treatment on behalf of an adult, though it is desirable that next of kin are consulted before treating an adult without consent. Recent legislation gives legal authority to people appointed by the patient, or by the state, or a relative or carer, to consent (or refuse) on behalf of the patient. A mini-mental score may not adequately identify those unable to give consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons....

    Incorrect

    • Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Explanation:

      There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH,...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH, which of the following is true about the α- and β-subunits of each hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maximal physiological activity occurs only on their combination

      Explanation:

      Glycoprotein hormones (GPHs) are the most complex molecules that function as hormones. They each consist of two different subunits, α and β, which are non-covalently associated. The combination of these subunits results in an increase in their activity and β structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The cavernous sinus is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cavernous sinus is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Describe the location of the SA node: ...

    Incorrect

    • Describe the location of the SA node:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Junction of the SVC and right atrium

      Explanation:

      Anatomically the SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is a physiological effect of pregnancy on the kidney?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a physiological effect of pregnancy on the kidney?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased creatinine

      Explanation:

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in kidney and ureter size. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) commonly increases by 50%, returning to normal around 20 weeks postpartum. Plasma sodium does not change because this is offset by the increase in GFR. There is decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine and potentially glucosuria (due to saturated tubular reabsorption).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Where is the carotid sinus located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the carotid sinus located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After the bifurcation of the carotid artery, on the internal carotid

      Explanation:

      The carotid sinus is a small dilation in the internal carotid artery just above its bifurcation into the external and internal carotid branch. Baroreceptors are present at this dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Luteinizing hormone or LH is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Studies have shown surges in LH levels during menopausal hot flushes, suggesting that a pulsatile release of LH is responsible for increased hypothalamic norepinephrine activity, causing the hot flushes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The consensual light reflex is co-ordinated mainly in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edinger-Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The consensual light reflex occurs when an individual’s right eye is shielded and light shines into the left eye, constriction of the right pupil will occur, as well as the left. This is because the afferent signal sent through one optic nerve connects to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, whose axons run to both the right and the left oculomotor nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the function of basic electrical rhythm ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of basic electrical rhythm

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To coordinate peristalsis and other motor activity

      Explanation:

      The basal or basic electrical rhythm (BER) or electrical control activity (ECA) determines the frequency of the contractions in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, thus acting to coordinate peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In the basal ganglia, the Lentiform nucleus is formed by which two nuclei?...

    Incorrect

    • In the basal ganglia, the Lentiform nucleus is formed by which two nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Putamen and Globus pallidus

      Explanation:

      The Basal Ganglia are composed of the following structures: Caudate, putamen, Globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus and substantia nigra.

      The Lentiform nucleus is a biconvex structure located within the basal ganglia of the brain. It is composed of two nuclei:

      1. Putamen: This is the outer part of the Lentiform nucleus and is involved in regulating movements and various types of learning.
      2. Globus pallidus: This is the inner part of the Lentiform nucleus and is divided into two segments: the external segment (GPe) and the internal segment (GPi). It plays a key role in the regulation of voluntary movement.

      These two structures together form the Lentiform nucleus, which is an integral part of the basal ganglia system involved in motor control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion of fat begin in a normal human being?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The enzyme lipase which is responsible for digestion of fat is secreted by the exocrine pancreas in the 2nd part of the duodenum at the point where the pancreatic duct opens. It opens together with the common bile duct which contains bile that emulsify fat aiding in digestion. The oesophagus, stomach and mouth do not contain enzymes related to fat digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brodmann area 44

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the anterior pituitary receive most of its blood supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal hypophysial vessels

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary receives its arterial supply from the superior hypophyseal artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid that forms a capillary around the hypothalamus; thus forming the hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation… ...

    Incorrect

    • In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces towards the centre

      Explanation:

      Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Emulsification of dietary lipids is brought about by ...

    Incorrect

    • Emulsification of dietary lipids is brought about by

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bile salts

      Explanation:

      Digestion of fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine. The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is: ...

    Incorrect

    • During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25 mmHg

      Explanation:

      During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is less than 30 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All the options are true

      Explanation:

      The strength with which oxygen binds to haemoglobin is affected by several factors. These factors shift or reshape the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. A rightward shift indicates that the haemoglobin under study has a decreased affinity for oxygen. The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, CADET, face Right! for CO2 and CO, Acid (H+), 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Passmed