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  • Question 1 - The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 78-year-old woman who has recently developed left-sided hemiplegia. A CT head scan is performed, and the diagnosis of an ischaemic stroke is confirmed. Her blood pressure is currently very high, with the most recent measurement being 196/124 mmHg, according to the nurse in charge. While you wait for the stroke team to review her, she asks you to prescribe something to help lower the patient's blood pressure.

      Which of the following is the best drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      In the setting of a stroke syndrome (i.e., in the presence of focal neurological deficits), hypertensive emergencies usually necessitate a slower and more controlled blood pressure reduction than in other situations. Rapid reduction of MAP in the presence of an ischaemic stroke can compromise blood flow, leading to further ischaemia and worsening of the neurological deficit. In this situation, intravenous labetalol is the drug of choice for lowering blood pressure.

      Significantly elevated blood pressure (>185/110 mmHg) is a contraindication to thrombolysis, but there is some evidence for controlling blood pressure before thrombolysis in exceptional circumstances, when it is only slightly above this threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?

      Your Answer: Stroke within the last 2 years

      Correct Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide...

    Incorrect

    • You're in resus with a 69-year-old woman who is very sick. You decide to contact the intensive care outreach team because she appears to be in septic shock. They decide to start a dobutamine infusion as soon as they arrive.

      Which of the following statements about dobutamine is correct?

      Your Answer: It only acts at beta-adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: It may be infused via a peripheral line

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      It is infused intravenously after being diluted to a volume of at least 50 ml in a suitable crystalloid solution. The dose is titrated to response and ranges from 0.5 to 40 g/kg/min. Extravasation-induced skin necrosis is uncommon, and dobutamine can be administered through a peripheral line.

      At doses below 10 g/kg/min, side effects are rare, but at higher doses, they can include:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension
      Headache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      1855.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive...

    Correct

    • You contact the intensive care outreach team to inquire about a severely hypotensive resuscitated patient. They make the decision to start a dopamine infusion.

      Dopamine primarily has which of the following effects at high doses (>15 g/kg/min)?

      Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic stimulation

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Because clearance varies greatly in critically ill patients, plasma concentrations cannot be predicted reliably from infusion rates.
      Dopamine is given as an intravenous infusion, and because extravasation can cause tissue necrosis and sloughing, a central line is usually used (especially at higher doses >240 g/min). In an emergency, however, dopamine can be administered through a large vein (cephalic or basilic) while a central line is being prepared. Alkaline intravenous solutions inactivate it, so sodium bicarbonate should not be infused with it.

      The following are the most common dopamine side effects:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Tachycardia
      Dysrhythmias
      Angina
      Hypertension

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.

      Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?

      Your Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

      When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.

      Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.

      Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male diabetic patient presents to the Emergency Room complaining of severe chest pain. His medical record shows that he had coronary angioplasty one week ago, during which he was administered abciximab.

      Which of the following haematological diseases has a similar mechanism of action to this drug?

      Your Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Abciximab is glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that decreases aggregation of platelets by prevent their cross-linking. In Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia there are low levels of these same receptors leading to decreased bridging of platelets as fibrinogen cannot attach. There is increased bleeding time both in this disease and when there is use of abciximab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      287.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before initiating treatment with Glyceryl nitrate, you examine the patient and find a murmur. The patient reveals that he has a heart valve disorder, and you immediately put a hold on the GTN order.

      Which of the following valve disorders is an absolute contraindication to the use of GTN?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Nitro-glycerine (NTG) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis), acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, hypertension
      2. Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) – chronic angina pectoris (treatment)
      3. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis)

      The nitrate drugs cause vasodilation via the action of nitric oxide.

      The contraindications to the use of nitrate are the following:
      1. Allergy to nitrates
      2. Concomitant use of phosphodiesterases (PDE) inhibitors such as tadalafil and sildenafil
      3. Right ventricular infarction
      4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      5. Cardiac tamponade
      6. Constrictive pericarditis
      7. Hypotensive conditions
      8. Hypovolaemia
      9. Marked anaemia
      10. Mitral stenosis
      11. Raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral haemorrhage or head trauma
      12. Toxic pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the...

    Correct

    • After returning from Thailand two days ago, a 61-year-old man presents to the department with severe diarrhoea and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and takes an ACE inhibitor to treat it.

      Which of the following statements about angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is correct?

      Your Answer: They have been shown to reduce mortality in heart failure

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors prevent angiotensin I from being converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II has a variety of effects:
      Sympathetic activity has increased.
      Vasoconstriction in the arteries
      Secretion of Vasopressin
      Secretion of aldosterone

      The increase in systemic blood pressure is caused by arteriolar vasoconstriction. Vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption in the kidneys as well as the thirst sensation. In the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, aldosterone causes the reabsorption of sodium and water from the urine in exchange for potassium secretion. As a result, ACE inhibitors lower systemic blood pressure while also causing hyperkalaemia.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) are used in a variety of clinical settings, including heart failure. According to a meta-analysis, ACE inhibitors reduce death, MI, and overall admission in patients with heart failure by 28%.
      ACE inhibitors are also used in the following clinical settings:
      Hypertension
      Chronic kidney disease
      Diabetic nephropathy 
      Following a myocardial infarction

      In the presence of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they can cause or exacerbate renal failure.
      The most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough caused by increased bradykinin production. There is, however, no known link to fibrosis of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      109.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to...

    Incorrect

    • For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.

      Which of the following medications will prevent warfarin from working?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.

      Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibit the effects of warfarin, resulting in a lower INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, use the mnemonic PC BRASS:

      P– Phenytoin
      C– Carbamazepine
      B– Barbiturates
      R– Rifampicin
      A– Alcohol (chronic ingestion)
      S– Sulphonylureas
      S– Smoking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a...

    Incorrect

    • In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a VF cardiac arrest.

      During an adult VF arrest, which of the following points should be treated with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: As soon as circulatory access is obtained

      Correct Answer: After the 3 rd shock, once chest compressions have been resumed

      Explanation:

      In non-shockable (PEA/asystole) cardiac arrests, adrenaline should be given as soon as circulatory access is gained. The dose is 1 mg via IV or IO (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000).

      Once chest compressions have been resumed after the third shock in a shockable (Vf/pVT) cardiac arrest, adrenaline should be administered. The dosage is one milligram (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000)

      It should be given every 3-5 minutes after that (i.e. alternate loops) and without interrupting chest compressions.
      Systemic vasoconstriction is caused by the alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline, which raises coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures.

      Adrenaline’s beta-adrenergic effects are inotropic (increased myocardial contractility) and chronotropic (increased heart rate), and they can increase coronary and cerebral blood flow. However, concomitant increases in myocardial oxygen consumption and ectopic ventricular arrhythmias (especially in the absence of acidaemia), transient hypoxemia due to pulmonary arteriovenous shunting, impaired microcirculation, and increased post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction may offset these benefits.

      Although there is no evidence of long-term benefit from its use in cardiac arrest, the improved short-term survival reported in some studies justifies its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (6/10) 60%
Pharmacology (6/10) 60%
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