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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the upper arm and the median nerve is transected. Impaired function can be demonstrated in which of the following muscle/s?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is a peripheral nerve originating in the cervical roots C5–T1 of the brachial plexus. It supplies motor innervation to the anterior forearm flexors, the thenar muscles, and the two lateral lumbricals as well as sensory innervation to the lateral palm and anterior, lateral three and a half fingers. Motor and sensory deficits depend on whether the lesion is proximal (above the elbow) or distal (below the elbow). While proximal lesions present with the “hand of benediction,” distal lesions present with either the “pinch sign” (anterior interosseous nerve syndrome) or, in the case of carpal tunnel syndrome, with mildly impaired thumb and index finger motion. Both proximal lesions and carpal tunnel syndrome result in reduced sensation in the area of the thumb, index and middle finger. Anterior interosseus nerve syndrome does not cause any sensory deficits. Chronic injuries to the nerve result in atrophy of median nerve innervated muscles while acute injuries do not have this feature. Treatment is mostly conservative and focuses on rest and immobilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      1054.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality...

    Correct

    • A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome

      Explanation:

      McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      94.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been holding onto her both ears and crying out of pain. This has been going on for about a week and there has been no improvement in the pain despite using paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, the child is febrile, and her pulse is 130 beats per minute. the tympanic membranes are red and bulging on both sides. What is the most appropriate course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of acute otitis media should begin with adequate analgesia. Antibiotic therapy can be deferred in children two years or older with mild symptoms. Antibiotics should be prescribed immediately if:- Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving- Systemically unwell but not requiring admission- Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease- Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media- Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canaHigh-dose amoxicillin (80 to 90 mg per kg per day) is the antibiotic of choice for treating acute otitis media in patients who are not allergic to penicillin, otherwise erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old girl presents with bruise-like painful lumps on her lower legs after...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with bruise-like painful lumps on her lower legs after a sore throat. Which of the following is expected in her case?

      Your Answer: The condition may take 6-12 weeks to resolve

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. It is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to a variety of antigens| circulating immune complexes have not been found in idiopathic or uncomplicated cases but may be demonstrated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is a streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adultsIn most patients, erythema nodosum is a self-limited disease and requires only symptomatic relief using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), cool wet compresses, elevation, and bed rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      118.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer: First pharyngeal arch

      Correct Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.Right Sixth Arch:Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.Left Sixth ArchVentral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 16 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month...

    Incorrect

    • An 16 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?

      Your Answer: Tinea capitis

      Correct Answer: Favus

      Explanation:

      Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      110.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given laboratory findings is NOT suggestive of Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Fanconi syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by defective proximal renal tubular reabsorption, which leads to excessive excretion of potassium, phosphate, uric acid, bicarbonates, glucose, and certain amino acids in the urine. Loss of potassium in the urine leads to hypokalaemia, while the loss of phosphate may lead to hypophosphatemic rickets. The overall impact is the failure to thrive and growth retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      235.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Adrenal cortex destruction by tumour

      Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      107.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?

      Your Answer: Heimlich manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps

      Explanation:

      Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer: Obtain a multiple sleep latency test for narcolepsy

      Correct Answer: Request an EEG

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      486.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      56
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      269.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history...

    Incorrect

    • An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history of poor feeding. She was born with exomphalos and a large left arm. What is the most probable condition that the baby is going to develop?

      Your Answer: Neuroblastoma

      Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests that the baby has Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome, which predisposes the individual to cancer. The most common childhood tumour that a person with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome may develop is Wilms’ tumour. Typical features include: macrosomia, asymmetric limb growth, macroglossia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, umbilical hernias or other abdominal wall deformities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      232.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure...

    Correct

    • A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
      Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
      DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
      Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      433
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mastoiditis

      Correct Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an...

    Correct

    • A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an X-ray, a pelvic U/S and a brain MRI. Which of the following reasons would result in an advanced bone age?

      Your Answer: Androgen excess

      Explanation:

      Androgen excess is one of the most common causes of advanced bone age. It usually occurs in precocious puberty or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      161.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of his friends are now taller than him. He feels that he has not grown as they have. On physical examination, sparse dark coarse hair was observed over the junction of the pubes. He reports having noticed some enlargement of his penis and growth of his testis. His testicular volume was measured to be 8 ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal puberty

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the boy is going through normal pubertal changes.In the 3 years before puberty, low pulsatile LH levels become detectable during sleep. LH and FSH are produced in the anterior pituitary and released due to pulsatile gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by the hypothalamus. There is an increase in the amplitude and frequency of LH secretion as puberty approaches, which causes enlargement of the gonads. In boys, the testicles produce testosterone, and in girls, the ovaries produce oestradiol and ovarian androgens, which, with the adrenal androgens, produce secondary sexual characteristics.Note:The average age at onset of puberty is 11 years in girls. The first sign is breast bud development, followed by the appearance of pubic hair 6–12 months later. Menarche usually occurs 2–2.5 years after breast bud development. Peak height velocity in girls occurs at breast stage 2–3 and virtually always precedes menarche. The onset of puberty in boys is at 11.5 years. The first sign is testicular enlargement (>3 ml) and thinning of the scrotum. This is followed by the pigmentation of the scrotum and growth of the penis, and pubic hair follows. Peak height velocity (growth spurt) is two years later in boys than in girls and occurs at testicular stage 4–5 (i.e. testicular volume 10–12 ml), which is around 13–14 years of age. Breast enlargement occurs in 40–60% of boys (rarely, significant enough to cause social embarrassment in 10%) and is a result of oestradiol produced by the metabolism of testosterone. It usually resolves within three years. During puberty, elongation of the eye often occurs, causing short-sightedness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      107.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium. He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight. History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school. His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.Blood results:- Hb: 12.6 g/dl- MCV: 104 fL- MCHC: 38 g/dL- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L- LDH: 600 lμ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lμ/l)- Direct Coomb's test: NegativeAbdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cmWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acquired autoimmune haemolitic anaemia (AIHA)

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis based on the scenario provided above is hereditary spherocytosis.While jaundice and abdominal pain might make you think of hepatitis or cholecystitis in the first instance, the lack of fever suggests otherwise. The apyrexial presentation is against acute cholecystitis, and the past medical history reveals a chronic type of fatigue and two previous episodes of hepatitis. Furthermore, it is unlikely that the child has contracted infective hepatitis twice and now a third time! The most common cause of hepatitis in childhood is hepatitis A, however the lack of travel history to endemic areas makes this less likely. Hepatitis A is usually a mild, self-limiting disease that never presents with chronic symptoms. The chronicity of his fatigue and the blood results lead towards a haematological diagnosis. This is further substantiated by his low haemoglobin levels, high MCV and high reticulocyte count. Chronic haemolytic anaemia is the most likely cause, and the negative Coombs excludes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). Thus, leaving us with the answer as hereditary spherocytosis.Hereditary spherocytosis is a disorder that makes the cytoskeleton of red cells more fragile and therefore leads to red cell death and splenomegaly. Gallstones are a result of this red cell destruction and increased haem metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      329.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      262
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina? ...

    Correct

    • The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?

      Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (also known as von Recklinghausen disease) does not present with cataracts.The eye findings in NF1 are Lisch’s nodules, which are pigmentary lesions seen on the iris and constitute one of the major diagnostic features in this condition. Note:Interestingly, in another syndrome closely related to it, Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2), cataracts can occur. Early detection in family members may be made by finding lens opacities (both congenital polar cataracts and posterior lenticular opacities). Other options:- Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder with pigmentary skin changes, mental retardation and eye involvement in 40% of cases. – Myotonic dystrophy is a triplet-repeat disorder with neurological symptoms and cataracts. – Lowe syndrome (oculo-cerebro-renal syndrome) is an X-linked recessive condition. Males with this X-linked recessive condition have cataracts, hypotonia, mental retardation, generalised aminoaciduria and renal tubular acidosis with hypophosphatemia. – Wilson disease is an inborn error of copper metabolism. The clinical features include hepatic involvement, progressive neurological features, eye involvement, including Kayser–Fleischer rings and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?

      Your Answer: Glucose intolerance

      Correct Answer: Dysphonia

      Explanation:

      Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old girl with acute Guillain-Barre syndrome has developed worsening weakness of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl with acute Guillain-Barre syndrome has developed worsening weakness of her proximal muscles. Which of the following tests should be used to monitor her respiratory function?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      One-third of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome suffer from diaphragm weakness which can lead to further respiratory complications if there is involvement of the tongue, palate, and neck muscles. Forced vital capacity (FVC) is the best way to monitor respiratory muscle function by assessing it repeatedly. Admission for ITU is suggested when FVC is below 20ml/kg and intubation recommended when FVC is 15ml/kg or below. FVC is used in any neurological disorders wherein the respiratory muscles are affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      70.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling and soft stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis is characterized by the abrupt onset of severe symptoms. Without airway control and medical management, symptoms may rapidly progress to respiratory obstruction and death in a matter of hours.Usually, no prodromal symptoms occur in children. Fever is usually the first symptom, and temperatures often reach 40°C. Acute epiglottitis may result in sudden, complete upper airway obstruction. Classic signs in children are four D’s: drooling, dyspnoea, dysphagia, and dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait and dysarthria. On examination, he is found to have ataxia, absent tendon reflexes, and nystagmus. His intelligence is well preserved. Additionally, distal muscle weakness was noted in hands and feet. He is also diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute cerebellar ataxia

      Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be Friedreich’s ataxia.Friedreich’s ataxia is also called spinocerebellar degeneration. It is an autosomal recessive condition. The onset of ataxia is around ten years of age. Intelligence is preserved. Cerebellar impairment, distal muscle weakness, pes cavus, hammer-toes and progressive kyphoscoliosis are present. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, particularly the ankle jerk. Loss of vibration and position sense occurs because of degeneration of the posterior columns. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can occur with progression to congestive cardiac failure.Other options:- Ataxia Telangiectasia: ataxia develops earlier, around two years of age, with loss of ambulation by adolescence. Nystagmus is present. Telangiectasia becomes evident by mid-childhood and is found on bulbar conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose and on the ears. These children have an increased risk of developing lymphoreticular malignancies.- Abetalipoproteinemia: begins in childhood with steatorrhea and failure to thrive. Neurological symptoms appear in late childhood. These include ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuritis, abnormalities in position and vibration sense, muscle weakness and mental retardation. Vitamin E is undetectable in serum in these patients.- Acute cerebellar ataxia: occurs in children of 1-3 years of age and is a diagnosis of exclusion. It often follows acute viral infections like varicella, coxsackievirus or echovirus by 2-3 weeks. It is an autoimmune response to a viral agent affecting the cerebellum. Prognosis is excellent with complete recovery present. Very small numbers have long term sequelae like ataxia, incoordination, speech disorder and behavioural problems.- Acute labyrinthitis: It is difficult to differentiate acute labyrinthitis from acute cerebellar ataxia in a toddler. It is associated with middle ear infections, vertigo and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      71.9
      Seconds

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