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  • Question 1 - Leukotrienes normally function during an asthma attack and work to sustain inflammation. Which...

    Correct

    • Leukotrienes normally function during an asthma attack and work to sustain inflammation. Which of the following enzymes would inhibit their synthesis?

      Your Answer: 5-lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      Leukotrienes are produced from arachidonic acid with the help of the enzyme 5-lipoxygenase. This takes place in the eosinophils, mast cells, neutrophils, monocytes and basophils. They are eicosanoid lipid mediators and take part in allergic and asthmatic attacks. They are both autocrine as well as paracrine signalling molecules to regulate the body’s response and include: LTA4, LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, LTE4 and LTF4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria...

    Correct

    • A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?

      Your Answer: Complement C5a

      Explanation:

      C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.

      Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.

      Hageman factor is a clotting factor.

      Histamine causes vasodilation.

      C3B causes opsonisation.

      IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Urology
      • Pathology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to...

    Correct

    • T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to produce which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Gamma interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferon gamma is a soluble cytokine previously known as the macrophage activating factor. It is the only member belonging to the type II class of the interferons. It is secreted by a number of cells taking part in the immune reaction including: T-helper cells (CD-4), cells with immunological memory (CD45PA), killer cells (CD8), dendrite cells (CD23,35), natural killer cells (CD16) and B lymphocytes (CD22,CD23). It has both a defending as well as a pathological effect. It induces differentiation in the myeloid cell in the bone marrow. If macrophages are infected by parasites it activates the macrophages to destroy them. IFN-γ strengthens the anti-tumour activities of the cytotoxic lymphocytes. Together with CD4 or CD8 toxins, produced by lymphocytes, it suppresses the growth of the tumour cells. along with these functions it increases the non specific response of the natural killer cells, causing changes in the cell membrane surface to prevent adhesion and penetration of a virus. It can either increase or decrease B cell response and it activates osteoclasts which increases bone resorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-5

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-6

      Explanation:

      IL-6 is secreted by the T cells and macrophages and is a pro inflammatory cytokine. It is secreted in response to trauma e.g. burns and tissue damage that leads to inflammation. Apart from this its is also a myokine and is elevated due to muscle contraction. Other functions include: stimulate osteoclast formation when secreted by osteoblasts, mediate fever in acute phase response and are responsible for energy metabolism in muscle and fatty tissues. Inhibitors of IL-6 e.g. oestrogen are used as a treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the...

    Correct

    • The accumulation of eosinophils within tissues is mostly regulated by which of the following cytokines?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-5

      Explanation:

      IL-5 is produced by TH2 helper cells and by mast cells. They stimulate increased secretion of immunoglobulins and stimulate B cell growth. They are the major regulators in eosinophil activation and control. They are also released from eosinophils and mast cells in asthmatic patients and are associate with a many other allergic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a specific target?

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      The movement of leukocytes towards a chemical mediator is termed chemotaxis and the mediators likewise called chemoattractants.

      Diapedesis is the squeezing of the leukocytes from the capillary wall into the intercellular space.

      Endocytosis is engulfing of a small substance by the cells e.g. glucose, protein, fats.

      Margination is lining of the WBC along the periphery of the blood vessel.

      Adhesion is attachment with the vessel wall.

      Phagocytosis is described as engulfing the bacteria or the offending substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following mediators of inflammation requires arachidonic acid for synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following mediators of inflammation requires arachidonic acid for synthesis?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      Arachidonic acid is normally present in the phospholipids that make up the cell membrane and is cleaved by phospholipase A2 from the phospholipid. Arachidonic acid is a precursor for the production of eicosanoids which include: 1) prostaglandins, prostacyclins and thromboxane, 2) leukotrienes and 3) anandamides. The production of these products along with their action on the body is called the arachidonic acid cascade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion...

    Correct

    • Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion at the site of the sting . Which of the following findings is likely to be seen in this lesion?

      Your Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Inflammation is the immediate response of the body towards infections or irritations. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. redness/rubor, 2. tumour/swelling, 3.dolar/pain, 4.calor/heat and organ dysfunction (function laesa). Inflammation has 2 components; vascular and cellular. Blood vessels dilate upstream of the inflamed area leading to the rubor and calor and constrict downstream, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak out of the capillary, resulting in swelling. The cellular component includes infiltration by neutrophils. Leukocyte arrival and functions include; 1. margination: cells marginated from the centre to the periphery of the vessel, 2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls, 3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes resulting in adhesion, 4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product and 5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42 year old women presents with end stage renal failure and is...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old women presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from her husband. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and she is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when her renal function tests were performed she showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. She was given antilymphocyte globulins and her condition reversed. What type of graft did this patient receive?

      Your Answer: Allograft

      Explanation:

      Allograft describes a graft between two of the same species. As the donor and the recipients are history-incompatible, rejection of the graft is common and is controlled by immunosuppressive drug therapy. Isograft and syngraft are synonymous and referred to a graft transferred between genetically identical individuals e.g. identical twins. In this case rejection is rare as they are history-compatible.

      Autograft refers to transfer of one part of the body to another location.

      Xenograft is transfer of tissue from another species e.g. pig to human in valve replacement surgeries and rejection is very high.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Renal
      • Pathology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which cells are most commonly seen in a granulomatous lesion that suggests an...

    Correct

    • Which cells are most commonly seen in a granulomatous lesion that suggests an underlying chronic inflammation?

      Your Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Lymphocytes and monocytes are commonly and characteristically recognised in a case of chronic inflammation.

      Eosinophils and neutrophils are seen with acute inflammation.

      Mast cells release histamine in early inflammation.

      Basophils are seen with allergies.

      Plasma cells are seen with viral infection.

      Platelets are not characteristic of any type of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a history of sore throat for the past 1 day. On examination there was a pharyngeal purulent discharge. Which of the following types of inflammation is seen in this boy?

      Your Answer: Acute inflammation

      Explanation:

      A 1 day history suggests the purulent discharge is due to acute inflammation. Acute inflammation has 3 features:

      1) the affected area is occupied by a purulent discharge composed of proteins, fluids and cells from local blood vessels

      2) the infective agent i.e. bacteria is present in the affected area

      3) the damaged tissue can be liquified and the debris removed from the site.

      If the inflammation lasts over weeks or months, then it is termed as chronic inflammation.

      Granulomatous inflammation is characterised by the presence and formation of granulomas.

      Exudate is not a feature of resolution or a complication of inflammation.

      Abscess formation takes more than 1 day to form and is usually within a capsule/cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with...

    Correct

    • A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.

      Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.

      Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Correct

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity...

    Correct

    • A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Liver flukes

      Explanation:

      Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

      Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.

      Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

      Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.

      Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.

      Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35 year old man presented to the surgical OPD with a lump...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old man presented to the surgical OPD with a lump on his right forearm which appeared 3 weeks ago and was tender on examination. He gave a history was being in a car accident with pieces of glass from the windshield piercing his forearm removed manually and on further elective surgery. Which of these cells are characteristically found during inflammation in this situation?

      Your Answer: Giant cell

      Explanation:

      A foreign body reaction Is characteristic of giant cells. Glass being the foreign object initiates an inflammatory response in this condition.

      Mast cells are involved in allergic reactions.

      Eosinophils are characteristic of a parasitic infection and allergic inflammatory process but are not due to foreign bodies.

      Plasma cells are typical of chronic inflammation.

      Lymphocytes are involved in viral infections.

      Macrophages combine together to form giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      108.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure...

    Correct

    • A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.

      Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.

      DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.

      Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old man presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from his best friend. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and he is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when his renal function is assessed, he showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. He was given antilymphocyte globulins and his condition reversed. During the crisis period the patient is likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer: Acute rejection

      Explanation:

      This patients is most likely experiencing an acute rejection. It is a cell mediated attack against the organ that has been transplanted. Antigens are either presented by blood borne cells with in the graft or antigen presenting cells in the body may be presenting class I and class II molecules that have been shed by the graft. Class I will activate CD8 and class II, CD4 cells, both of which will attack the graft.

      Chronic rejection is a slow process which occurs months to years after the transplant. The exact mechanism is not very well understood but it probably involves a combination of Type III and Type IV hypersensitivity directed against the foreign MHC molecules which look like self-MHC presenting a foreign antigen.

      Hyperacute Transplant Rejection occurs almost immediately and is often evident while you are still in surgery. It is caused by accidental ABO Blood type mismatching of the donor and recipient which almost never happens anymore. This means the host has preformed antibodies against the donated tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Renal
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in the inflammatory process?

      Your Answer: Leukocyte adhesion

      Explanation:

      Steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function include:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel.

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls.

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes. Interaction of these results in adhesion.

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product.

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.

      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.

      Basophils are not present.

      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following cells would be increased in a patient suffering from...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cells would be increased in a patient suffering from a hydatid cyst in the liver?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils are granulocytes that respond to parasitic infections. They are also involved in allergy response and asthma. They contain granules which stain red with Romanowsky’s method and contain peroxidase, Rnase, Dnase, histamine, lipase and major basic proteins that are toxic to the parasite as well as the hosts tissue. They are about 1-5% of the total WBC population and persist in the blood for 6-12 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A week after a renal transplant the patient received antilymphocyte globulins. Shortly after...

    Correct

    • A week after a renal transplant the patient received antilymphocyte globulins. Shortly after she developed fever and hypotension. Which of the following mechanisms is involved in this response?

      Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type III hypersensitivity is characterized by soluble immune complexes which are aggregations of IgG and IgM antibodies with antigens that deposit in different tissues e.g. the skin, joints, kidneys. They can then trigger an immune response by activating the complement cascade. This reaction can take hours to develop and examples include: immuno-complex glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, subacute bacterial endocarditis, arthus reaction and serum sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is A- blood group. Her first child was Rh+ and the father is also Rh+. The second child is at a risk of developing which condition?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic disease of the new-born

      Explanation:

      This infant is at risk for haemolytic disease of the new born also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. In the pregnancy, Rh-positive RBC’s cross the placenta and enter the mothers blood system. She then becomes sensitised and forms IgG antibodies/anti-Rh antibodies against them. The second child is at a greater risk for this disease than the first child with Rh-positive blood group as during the second pregnancy, a more powerful response is produced. IgG has the ability to cross the placenta and bind to the fetal RBCs (type II hypersensitivity reaction) which are phagocytosed by the macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Perforin are present in the granules of which cell? ...

    Correct

    • Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?

      Your Answer: Natural killer cell

      Explanation:

      Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis,...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis, arthralgia without joint deformity and episodes of myalgia for the past 12 months. Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia. Which of the following tests should be performed to investigate this condition further?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibody test

      Explanation:

      These non specific findings are suggestive of autoimmune disease. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) is the first test that should be performed when autoimmune diseases are suspected and later on more specific tests should be performed. This tests aids in the diagnosis of SLE, scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome etc. To confirm the disease a history, physical examination along with specific tests are required.

      CPK is more specific for acute conditions.

      ESR is a non specific test for inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 8 year old boy presents with a history of repeated bacterial/pyogenic infections....

    Correct

    • An 8 year old boy presents with a history of repeated bacterial/pyogenic infections. He had a normal recovery from chickenpox and measles and shows normal antibody response. A decrease in which of the cell types can best explain this history of repeated pyogenic infections?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      A decrease in the number of granulocytes, particularly neutrophils is known as agranulocytosis and it increases the susceptibility of an individual towards recurrent infections. Neutropenia can be either due to decreased production or increased elimination of neutrophils.

      Ineffective agranulopoiesis is seen in: 1. myeloid stem cell suppression, 2. disease conditions associated with granulopoiesis such as megaloblastic anaemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, 3. rare genetic diseases, 4. splenic sequestration and 5. increased peripheral utilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the...

    Correct

    • A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the right breast with enlarged axillary nodes on the same side. She underwent mastectomy and axillary node clearance. These were sent for histopathological examination. They showed no signs of metastasis. What could be cause of this enlargement in the lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Sinus histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Sinus histiocytosis also referred to as reticular hyperplasia, refers to the enlargement, distention and prominence of the sinusoids of the lymph nodes. This is a non-specific form of hyperplasia characteristically seen in lymph nodes that drain tumours. The endothelial lining of the lymph node becomes markedly hypertrophied, along with an increase in the number of macrophages which results in the distortion, distention and enlargement of the sinus. In this scenario there is no evidence that an infection or another malignancy could account for the enlargement. Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia is caused by an immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Female Health
      • Pathology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?

      Your Answer: Recycling of old red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells found in the liver are part of the monocyte-reticular system. They are specialised macrophages and primarily function to recycle old and damaged RBCs. The RBCs are phagocytosed and the haemoglobin is broken down into haem and globin. The haem is further broken down into iron that is recycled and bilirubin that is conjugated with glucuronic acid and excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure, received an antibiotic injection. She immediately developed a rash and her airway constricted raising the airway pressure. Which mechanism is responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate reaction that occurs due to binding of the antigen with antibodies attached to mast cells in a previously sensitized person. It has an immediate phase, which is characterised by vasodilation, leakage of plasma, smooth muscle spasm, or glandular secretions. This manifests in about 5-30 min and usually resolves within 60 mins. The delayed phase follows after 24 hours and can persist up to several days. It is due to infiltration of eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils and CD4+ cells and leads to tissue destruction. The nature of the reaction varies according to the site. It can take the form of skin allergy, hives, allergic rhinitis, conjunctivitis, bronchial asthma or food allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby? ...

    Correct

    • What Is the mechanism behind rhesus incompatibility in a new born baby?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies that are produced by the immune response bind to the patients own cell surface antigens. These antigens can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Destruction occurs due to antibody dependent cell mediated antibodies. Antibodies bind to the cell and opsonise the cell, activating phagocytes to destroy that cell e.g. autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Goodpasture syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, pernicious anaemia, Graves’ disease, Myasthenia gravis and haemolytic disease of the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep...

    Correct

    • An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep pneumoniae are added to a solution of leukocytes with a substance added to enhance the process of phagocytosis. What is this substance?

      Your Answer: Complement C3b

      Explanation:

      C3b is cleaved from C3 complement with the help of the enzyme C3- convertase. It binds to the cell surface of the offending substance and opsonizes it. This makes it easy for the phagocytes to detect and eliminate them.

      IgM does not act as an opsonin but igG does.

      Selectins aid leukocytes to bind to the endothelial surfaces.

      C5a is a chemo-attractant and histamine a vasodilator.

      NADPH oxidises offending substance after phagocytosis within the macrophage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%

      Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%

      Monocytes: 2 to 8%

      Eosinophils: 1 to 4%

      Basophils: 0.5 to 1%

      Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough and fever. His sputum culture showed the presence of Strep pneumoniae. Which of the following substances produced by the inflammatory cells will result in effective clearance of this organism from the lung parenchyma?

      Your Answer: Hydrogen peroxide

      Explanation:

      Hydrogen peroxide is produced by myeloperoxidase to form a potent oxidant that eliminates bacteria, but is not effective in chronic granulomatous diseases.

      Platelet activating factor will lead to the activation, adhesion and aggregation of platelets but will not directly kill bacteria.

      Prostaglandins cause vasodilation but do not activate neutrophils.

      Kallikrein promotes formation of bradykinin that leads to vasodilation.

      Leukreines increase vascular permeability.

      Cytokines are communicating molecules between immune cells but directly will not kill bacteria.

      Interleukins will regulate the immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation? ...

    Correct

    • Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation?

      Your Answer: Granulomatous inflammation

      Explanation:

      Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in granulomatous inflammation. They form when epithelioid cells fuse together. They usually contain a nuclei with a horseshoe-shaped pattern in the periphery of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      3.3
      Seconds

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