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Question 1
Incorrect
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Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:
Your Answer: Inversion
Correct Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)
Explanation:All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following substances is involved in the respiratory burst by the neutrophil?
Your Answer: Superoxide dismutase forms h2o2
Correct Answer: NADPh oxidase
Explanation:The respiratory burst is a rapid release of reactive oxygen species (ROS) from neutrophils and other phagocytes. This process is crucial for the destruction of pathogens. The key components and enzymes involved in the respiratory burst include:
- NADPH oxidase: This enzyme complex plays a central role in the respiratory burst by converting oxygen (O2) into superoxide anion (O2•-), a reactive oxygen species. This is the initial step in the production of various ROS.
- Superoxide dismutase (SOD): This enzyme converts superoxide anion (O2•-) into hydrogen peroxide (H2O2). While SOD is involved in the pathway, the respiratory burst is initiated by NADPH oxidase.
- Myeloperoxidase (MPO): This enzyme uses hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to produce hypochlorous acid (HOCl) from chloride ions (Cl-), which is a potent antimicrobial agent. Myeloperoxidase also produces other reactive species using halide ions.
- Catalase: This enzyme degrades hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into water (H2O) and oxygen (O2). While catalase helps to protect the cell from oxidative damage by breaking down H2O2, it is not involved in the generation of ROS during the respiratory burst.
- Adenylate cyclase: This enzyme is involved in the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) from ATP and is not directly related to the respiratory burst.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?
Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells
Explanation:Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 4
Correct
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During the gastric phase, the acid secretion process is stimulated in the G cells by?
Your Answer: Vagal stimulation, distention of the stomach wall, oligopeptides in the stomach
Explanation:Before the meal enters into the stomach, the amount of secretion is limited. Swallowing of a food bolus triggers the release of gastrin. Once in the stomach, the meal physically distends the stomach activating the stretch receptors and initiating the vago vagal reflex amplifying the secretion during the gastric phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Where would one normally find venous valves?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Saphenous vein
Explanation:The intima of the limb veins is folded at intervals to form venous valves that prevent retrograde flow. There are no valves present in the very small veins, the great veins, or the veins in the brain and viscera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)
Explanation:The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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Portal vein receives its blood from all the following except:
Your Answer: Kidney
Explanation:The portal vein receives blood from the intestines via the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, from stomach via the gastric veins and from the spleen and pancreas via splenic vein. The kidney is supplied by the renal artery and drains into the renal vein into the inferior venacava.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision.Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?
Your Answer: Sucralfate
Correct Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly during:
Your Answer: Atrial systole
Correct Answer: Diastole
Explanation:The sub endocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure from contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the sub endocardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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The celiac trunk consists of which arteries?
Your Answer: Left gastric, common hepatic, splenic
Explanation:The celiac trunk is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta. It is 1.25 cm in length. Branching from the aorta at thoracic vertebra 12 (T12). There are three main divisions of the celiac artery:- left gastric artery- common hepatic artery- splenic artery
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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With regards to the cell cycle, which phase represents period of cell growth that divides the end of DNA synthesis and the beginning of somatic cell division?
Your Answer: S Phase
Correct Answer: Gap 2
Explanation:Interphase is divided into three phases: G1 (first gap), S (synthesis), and G2 (second gap). During all three parts of interphase, the cell grows by producing proteins and cytoplasmic organelles. However, chromosomes are replicated only during the S phase. Thus, a cell grows (G1), continues to grow as it duplicates its chromosomes (S), grows more and prepares for mitosis (G2), and finally divides (M) before restarting the cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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Coronary flow is reduced during
Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Maximum amount of blood flow in the coronary arteries occur during diastole. When the heart rate increases which is also called tachycardia the duration of diastole decreases. Hence the amount of blood flow to the cardiac muscle also decreases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the blood supply to the liver?
Your Answer: Hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein
Explanation:The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow. Oxygen is provided from both sources; approximately half of the liver’s oxygen demand is met by the hepatic portal vein, and half is met by the hepatic arteries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Carcinogens found in cigarette smoke can transform proto-oncogenes to oncogenes through:
Your Answer: Inhibiting tumour suppressor genes.
Correct Answer: Point mutations in genomic DNA
Explanation:80% of the pancreatic cancers are environmentally influenced by smoking which increases the risk by 50%. Mutation can occur in the KRAS, p16, SMAD4, and TP53 genes among other tumour suppression genes. Smoking can be implicated in transformation of all these genes. Apart from KRAS all the genes are inactivated in pancreatic cancer. As KRAS is the most commonly altered gene, mutation occurs as point mutation. As smoking is the most common aetiology in pancreatic cancer, and KRAS is the most important gene that is altered. Most commonly cigarette smoke causes point mutation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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Regarding gustatory sensation:
Your Answer: The sensory taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue travel to the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve
Explanation:There are three morphologically distinct types of taste buds including; circumvallate, fungiform and foliate. Circumvallate are rounded structures arranged in a v on the back of the tongue. The posterior third travels to glossopharyngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the function of Activated protein C?
Your Answer: Activates factor V
Correct Answer: Inactivates factor Va
Explanation:Activated Protein C (APC) is a crucial protein in the regulation of blood coagulation. Its primary functions include:
- Inactivating Factor Va: APC inactivates Factor Va, which is a cofactor for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin by Factor Xa. By inactivating Factor Va, APC reduces thrombin formation, thereby acting as an anticoagulant.
- Inactivating Factor VIIIa: APC also inactivates Factor VIIIa, another cofactor that assists Factor IXa in the conversion of Factor X to Factor Xa. This further contributes to its anticoagulant effect.
These actions help to regulate blood clotting and prevent excessive thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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Which immunological cells are predominant in the lymph node (almost 98 % residence)?
Your Answer: Lymphocytes
Explanation:Lymph nodes are a lymphoid organ mostly consisting of lymphocytes: B cells in the cortex from where they mature and proliferate and T cells in the paracortex. The medulla is also composed of lymphocytes and macrophages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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In the normal adult, haematopoiesis is present
Your Answer: Axial skeleton and proximal ends of long bones
Explanation:In children, haematopoiesis occurs in the marrow of the long bones such as the femur and tibia. In adults, it occurs mainly in the pelvis, cranium, vertebrae, and sternum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction and stroke?
Your Answer: It directly lyses fibrin
Correct Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor
Explanation:tPA is a serine protease involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It functions by converting plasminogen, an inactive precursor, into plasmin, an active enzyme. Plasmin then degrades fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, leading to clot dissolution. This mechanism is particularly valuable in the treatment of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and ischemic stroke, where timely dissolution of the clot can restore blood flow to affected tissues and reduce damage.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
- It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the most important source of heat production in the body?
Your Answer: Skeletal muscle contraction
Explanation:Thermogenesis is the process by which organisms produce heat. Through skeletal muscle contraction, or shivering, ATP is converted into kinetic energy, some of which converts into heat. These muscle contractions produce about 70% of total body heat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Its composition resembles that of brain ECF
Explanation:In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid a day is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has a different electrolyte level. About 80% of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. It is also produced by a single layer of column shaped ependymal cells. The composition and rate of CSF generation depends on several factors and is influenced by hormones and the content and pressure of blood and CSF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following would be the most suitable protection against osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Prevention of osteoporosis associated with chronic glucocorticoid therapy is done by administrating bisphosphonates. Oral bisphosphonates are indicated for patients aged above 65 who have been on steroid therapy for over 3 months, so as to reduce the risk of steroid induced osteoporosis. HRT is usually done in post menopausal women who have oestrogen related bone resorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein structure?
Your Answer: Secondary structure
Explanation:Secondary Structure refers to the coiling or folding of a polypeptide chain that gives the protein its 3-D shape. There are two types of secondary structures: the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which cell type functions as the critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune systems, by activating naïve T lymphocytes?
Your Answer: Natural killer cells
Correct Answer: Dendritic cells
Explanation:Dendritic cells are antigen presenting cells. They express class II MHC and T cell co-stimulatory molecules. They bind antigens and present them to native T cells and in the process activate the specific T cell against that antigen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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Cholecystokinin causes the pancreas to
Your Answer: Produce pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
Explanation:Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin. Together these enzymes catalyse the digestion of fat, protein, and carbohydrates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months ago was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?
Your Answer: Hot flushes
Explanation:The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.
Alopecia and cataracts are listed as possible side-effects, however they are not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.
Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer
Adverse effects:
- Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
- Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
- Venous thromboembolism.
- Endometrial cancer (although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue, tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased). Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.
Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The parasympathetic innervation of the parotid salivary gland arrives from the salivary nuclei:
Your Answer: CN XI
Correct Answer: CN IX
Explanation:Parasympathetic presynaptic nerve fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) synapse in the otic ganglion and the postsynaptic parasympathetic nerve fibers pass to the parotid gland via the auriculotemporal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:
Your Answer: Southern blotting
Explanation:A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 31
Correct
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Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:
Your Answer: Chemokines
Explanation:The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 32
Correct
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The functional unit of the liver is called?
Your Answer: Acini
Explanation:From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 33
Correct
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The HIV virus:
Your Answer: P24 is a core protein
Explanation:HIV is different in structure from other retroviruses. It is roughly spherical with a diameter of about 120 nm, around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell. It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle. Reverse transcriptase copies the viral single stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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Which of the following may be a feature of primary hyperaldosteronism?
Your Answer: Muscular weakness
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome is characterised by hypertension which may cause poor vision or headaches. Occasionally there may be muscular weakness, muscle spasms, tingling sensations, or excessive urination. Complications include cardiovascular disease such as stroke, myocardial infarction, kidney failure, and abnormal heart rhythms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 35
Correct
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To which of the following plasma proteins is T4 most bound in plasma?
Your Answer: Thyroxine-binding globulin
Explanation:Thyroxine-binding globulin, also known as TBG, is one of the three transport proteins responsible for carrying T4 and T3 through the circulatory system. It carries most of the T4 present in plasma, which it binds to strongly, shielding the hydrophobic hormones from the aqueous surroundings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the?
Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Renal protein reabsorption is the part of renal physiology that deals with the retrieval of filtered proteins, preventing them from disappearing from the body through the urine. Almost all reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule. Only ,1% is left in the final urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 37
Correct
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Question 38
Correct
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Sympathetic supply to the stomach is derived from
Your Answer: T5-T9 spinal segments via the coeliac ganglion
Explanation:Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the T5-T9 spinal segments via the coeliac ganglion through the greater splanchnic nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is due to:
Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels
Explanation:The initial depolarization of the action potential in a cardiac muscle cell is due to the sodium current generated by opening of the voltage gated sodium channels leading to an influx of sodium ions into the cell and raising the membrane potential towards threshold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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In the clotting mechanism, activation of factor IX can occur through the direct actions of:
Your Answer: Factor VIa & Xa
Correct Answer: Factor VIIa & XIa
Explanation:Factor IX is processed to remove the signal peptide, glycosylated and then cleaved by factor XIa (of the contact pathway) or factor VIIa (of the tissue factor pathway). When activated into factor IXa, in the presence of Ca2+, membrane phospholipids, and a Factor VIII cofactor, it hydrolyses one arginine-isoleucine bond in factor X to form factor Xa. Factor IX is inhibited by antithrombin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 41
Correct
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Which segment of the nephron is impermeable to water?
Your Answer: Ascending limb of Henle
Explanation:Considerable differences aid in distinguishing the descending and ascending limbs of the loop of Henle. The descending limb is permeable to water and noticeably less permeable to salt, and thus only indirectly contributes to the concentration of the interstitium. Unlike the descending limb, the thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, a critical feature of the counter current exchange mechanism employed by the loop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness:
Your Answer: That spares the macula of the involved eye
Correct Answer: In the eye on the same side as the optic nerve
Explanation:The optic nerve on each side contains medial and lateral fibers originating from the retina. Medial fibers cross at the optic chiasm and become the optic tract ending in the visual cortex of the occipital lobe. If there is a lesion interrupting the “optic nerve” on one side, the same side eye will be completely blind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Eosinophils provide immunity against
Your Answer: Allergens
Correct Answer: Multi cellular parasites
Explanation:Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Anti-gastroesophageal reflux mechanisms include the following except:
Your Answer: The phrenoesophageal ligament
Correct Answer: Peristaltic movements of the oesophagus
Explanation:The lower oesophageal sphincter contracts preventing reflux of acid into the oesophagus. The sling muscles of the stomach, the crura of the diaphragm and the phreno-oesophageal ligament all play an important role in constricting the lower portion of the oesophagus and preventing reflux. Peristaltic movements do not stop the acid reflux.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver?
Your Answer: Factor vii
Correct Answer: Factor viii
Explanation:Factor VIII is produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of the liver throughout the body. This protein circulates in the bloodstream in an inactive form, bound to another molecule called von Willebrand factor, until an injury that damages blood vessels occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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On which chromosome is the gene for insulin located?
Your Answer: Chromosome 11
Explanation:Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, and usually, two pairs of copies of chromosome 11. It is one of the most complex, gene-rich chromosomes in the human genome, and it is associated with a number of diseases. Studies have shown they the human insulin gene is located on the short arm of chromosome 11.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?
Your Answer: 12 amino acids, 156 codon combinations
Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations
Explanation:There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following are responsible for the 4th heart sound?
Your Answer: Rapid ventricular filling
Correct Answer: Ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle in atrial systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Bile contains:
Your Answer: Bile pigments, bilirubin, calcium
Correct Answer: Bile acids, phosphatidylcholine, cholesterol
Explanation:The main components of bile include bile acids or bile salts, phospholipids; mainly phosphatidylcholine, cholesterol, bilirubin, inorganic salts; potassium, sodium and bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of the following is not associated with increased risk of sudden death?
Your Answer: Nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (NSVT)
Correct Answer: Age
Explanation:Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a disease in which a portion of the myocardium (heart muscle) is enlarged without any obvious cause, creating functional impairment of the heart. It is the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes. The major risk factors for sudden death (SD) are recent unexplained syncope unlikely to be neurocardiogenic; HCM-related SD in first-degree or other close relatives; repetitive and/or prolonged nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (NSVT) episodes on Holter or extended ambulatory monitoring; massive left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) (wall thickness ≥30 mm); extensive/diffuse late gadolinium enhancement (LGE); end-stage heart failure usually with systolic dysfunction; and thin-walled akinetic LV apical aneurysm with regional scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
