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Question 1
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is suspected.
Which of these changes is likely to appear first in primary hypothyroidism?Your Answer: Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:The earliest biochemical change seen in hypothyroidism is an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.
Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are normal in the early stages.
TBG levels are generally unchanged in primary hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An infection causes an Addisonian crisis in a male patient with a known history of Addison's disease.
Which of the following is NOT a well-known symptom of an Addisonian crisis?
Your Answer: Fever
Correct Answer: Hyperglycaemia
Explanation:Although Addisonian crisis is a rare illness, it can be fatal if it is misdiagnosed. Hypoglycaemia and shock are the most common symptoms of an Addisonian crisis (tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered conscious level, and coma).
Other clinical characteristics that may be present are:
Fever
Psychosis
Leg and abdominal pain
Dehydration and vomiting
Convulsions -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series of blood tests done shows a grossly elevated TSH level and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is made.
What is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?Your Answer: Iodine deficiency
Explanation:Hypothyroidism occurs when there is a deficiency of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women and is most frequently seen in the age over 60.
Iodine deficiency is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide.
In developed countries, iodine deficiency is not a problem and autoimmune thyroiditis is the commonest cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is investigated for Addison's disease. She had low blood pressure, weakness, weight loss, and skin discoloration. An adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test is scheduled as part of her treatment.
Which of the following statements about ACTH is correct?Your Answer: It is secreted by the posterior pituitary
Correct Answer: It is released in response to the release of CRH
Explanation:The anterior pituitary gland produces and secretes a peptide hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (adenohypophysis). It is secreted in response to the hypothalamus’s secretion of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
ACTH promotes cortisol secretion via binding to cell surface ACTH receptors in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.
ACTH also promotes the production of beta-endorphin, which is a precursor to melanocyte-releasing hormone (MRH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is feeling unwell one week after a parathyroid surgery.
Which of the following stimulates release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?Your Answer: Increased plasma calcium concentration
Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate concentration
Explanation:PTH is synthesised and released from the chief cells of the four parathyroid glands located behind the thyroid gland.
It is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids and it controls free calcium in the body.The following stimuli causes release of PTH:
Increased plasma phosphate concentration
Decreased plasma calcium concentrationPTH release is inhibited by:
Normal or increased plasma calcium concentration
HypomagnesaemiaThe main actions of PTH are:
Increases plasma calcium concentration
Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with Cushing's disease. She has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.
In this patient, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY UNDERLYING CAUSE?Your Answer: Adrenal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is a collection of symptoms and signs caused by prolonged exposure to elevated levels of either endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.
The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is the iatrogenic administration of corticosteroids. The second most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is Cushing’s disease.
Cushing’s disease should be distinguished from Cushing’s syndrome and refers to one specific cause of the syndrome, an adenoma of the pituitary gland that secretes large amounts of ACTH and, in turn, elevates cortisol levels. This patient has a diagnosis of Cushing’s disease, and this is, therefore, the underlying cause in this case.
The endogenous causes of Cushing’s syndrome include:
Pituitary adenoma (Cushing’s disease)
Ectopic corticotropin syndrome, e.g. small cell carcinoma of the lung
Adrenal hyperplasia
Adrenal adenoma
Adrenal carcinoma -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You review an 83-year-old woman who has stage 5 chronic kidney disease. She has a number of electrolyte problems.
Which ONE of the following decreases the renal reabsorption of phosphate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids. It is the principal controller of free calcium in the body.
The main actions of parathyroid hormone are:
Increases plasma calcium concentration
Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
Increases osteoclastic activity (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (via stimulation of 1-alpha hydroxylase)
Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (indirectly via increased 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
Which of the following actions of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is a direct action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases renal phosphate reabsorption
Explanation:The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.
The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:
Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback)
Thyroid hormone (parathyroid hormone) Calcium reabsorption in the tubules of the kidneys is increased, but renal phosphate reabsorption is decreased. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.
Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.
Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.
Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.
In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.
A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Glucagon is the main catabolic hormone of the body and raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream.
Which pancreatic islet cells secretes glucagon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha
Explanation:Glucagon, secreted from the pancreatic islet alpha cells, is considered to be the main catabolic hormone of the body. It raises the concentration of glucose and fat in the bloodstream
There are five different pancreatic islet cells:
Alpha cells (20%) – produce glucagon
Beta cells (70%) – produce insulin and amylin
Delta cells (<10%) – produce somatostatin
Gamma cells (<5%) – produce pancreatic polypeptide
Epsilon cells (<1%) – produce ghrelin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms that a patient may experience in Addison's disease.
Which of the following claims about Addison's disease is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ACTH levels are elevated in primary insufficiency
Explanation:The adrenal glands produce too little steroid hormones, which causes Addison’s disease. The production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are all altered. The most prevalent cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for 70-80 percent of cases.
It affects more women than males and occurs most frequently between the ages of 30 and 50.
The following are some of the clinical signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease:
Weakness and sluggishness
Hypotension is a condition in which the blood pressure (notably orthostatic hypotension)
Vomiting and nausea
Loss of weight
Axillary and pubic hair loss
Depression
Hyperpigmentation is a condition in which a person’s (palmar creases, buccal mucosa and exposed areas more commonly affected)
The following are the classic biochemical hallmarks of Addison’s disease:
Hyponatraemia
Hyperkalaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Acidosis metabolica
When ACTH levels are combined with cortisol levels, it is possible to distinguish between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:
In primary insufficiency, levels rise.
In secondary insufficiency, levels are low or low normal. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite.
Which of the following promotes the activity of 1-alpha-hydroxylase?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney.
The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is promoted by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
Glucagon INHIBITS which of the following processes? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycolysis
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
Glucagon then causes:
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Lipolysis in adipose tissue
The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
Adrenaline
Cholecystokinin
Arginine
Alanine
Acetylcholine
The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
Insulin
Somatostatin
Increased free fatty acids
Increased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.
Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has been visiting her GP with symptoms of tiredness, muscle weakness and headaches. She is known to be hypertensive and takes amlodipine to control this. Her blood results today show that her potassium level is low at 3.0 mmol/L, and her sodium level is slightly elevated at 146 mmol/L.
Which of the following is the SINGLE most appropriate INITIAL investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma renin and aldosterone levels
Explanation:Primary hyperaldosteronism occurs when there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin axis. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.
The causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome) – the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism (,80% of all cases). These are usually unilateral and solitary and are more common in women.
Adrenal hyperplasia – this accounts for ,15% of all cases. Usually, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (BAH) but can be unilateral rarely. More common in men than women.
Adrenal cancer – a rare diagnosis but essential not to miss
Familial aldosteronism – a rare group of inherited conditions affecting the adrenal glands
The causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
Drugs – diuretics
Obstructive renal artery disease – renal artery stenosis and atheroma
Renal vasoconstriction – occurs in accelerated hypertension
Oedematous disorders – heart failure, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome
Patients are often asymptomatic. When clinical features are present, the classically described presentation of hyperaldosteronism is with:
Hypertension
Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
Other, less common, clinical features include:
Lethargy
Headaches
Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
Polyuria and polydipsia
Intermittent paraesthesia
Tetany and paralysis (rare)
Often the earliest sign of hyperaldosteronism is from aberrant urea and electrolytes showing hypokalaemia and mild hypernatraemia. If the patient is taking diuretics, and the diagnosis is suspected, these should be repeated after the patient has taken off diuretics.
If the diagnosis is suspected, plasma renin and aldosterone levels should be checked. Low renin and high aldosterone levels (with a raised aldosterone: renin ratio) is suggestive of primary aldosteronism.
If the renin: aldosterone ratio is high, then the effect of posture on renin, aldosterone and cortisol can be investigated to provide further information about the underlying cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Levels should be measured lying at 9 am and standing at noon:
If aldosterone and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an ACTH dependent cause, e.g. adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)
If aldosterone levels rise and cortisol levels fall on standing, this is suggestive of an angiotensin-II dependent cause, e.g. BAH
Other investigations that can help to distinguish between an adrenal adenoma and adrenal hyperplasia include:
CT scan
MRI scan
Selective adrenal venous sampling -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A patient in the Emergency Department had a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and you commence an insulin infusion. Which of these statements concerning endogenous insulin is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin has a short half-life of around 5-10 minutes
Explanation:Insulin, a peptide hormone, is produced in the pancreas by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans.
The beta-cells first synthesise an inactive precursor called preproinsulin which is converted to proinsulin by signal peptidases, which remove a signal peptide from the N-terminus.
Proinsulin is converted to insulin by the removal of the C-peptide.
Insulin has a short half-life in the circulation of about 5-10 minutes.
Glucagon and parasympathetic stimulation stimulates insulin release. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with headaches, lethargy, hypertension, and electrolyte disturbance. A diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism is made.
Which biochemical pictures would best support this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:When there are excessive levels of aldosterone outside of the renin-angiotensin axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. High renin levels will lead to secondary hyperaldosteronism.
The classical presentation of hyperaldosteronism when symptoms are present include:
Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Hypertension
Normal or slightly raised sodium levels -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas
Explanation:Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
Glucagon then causes:
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Lipolysis in adipose tissue
The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
Adrenaline
Cholecystokinin
Arginine
Alanine
Acetylcholine
The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
Insulin
Somatostatin
Increased free fatty acids
Increased urea productionGlycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.
Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought in drowsy and confused. Her BM is 2.2 mmol/l and a dose of IM glucagon is administered.
What is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Glucagon, a peptide hormone, is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas.
Its main physiological role is stimulation of hepatic glucose output leading to increase in blood glucose. It is the major counter-regulatory hormone to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
The principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia then stimulates:
Glycogenolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Lipolysis in adipose tissue leading to increased glycaemia.Secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by arginine, alanine, adrenaline, acetylcholine and cholecystokinin
Secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
Insulin
Somatostatin
Increased free fatty acids
Increased urea production -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After additional questioning, it becomes clear that he has a calcium-deficient diet.
What is the daily calcium intake recommendation for a healthy adult?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1300 mg
Explanation:A daily calcium intake of 1,000 to 1,300 mg is advised for adults. Women have a slightly higher calcium need than men and are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis as they age.
Calcium-rich foods include the following:
Milk, cheese, and butter as dairy products.
Broccoli, spinach, and green beans as green veggies.
Bread, rice, and cereals as whole grain foods.
Sardines, salmon, and other bony fish
Eggs
Nuts
The following foods have the least calcium:
Carrot
Fruits such as kiwis, raspberries, oranges, and papaya
Chicken and pork in meats. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A possible diagnosis of Cushing's illness is being investigated in an overweight patient with resistant hypertension. A CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) test is scheduled.
Which of the following statements about corticotropin-releasing hormone is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is produced by cells within the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
Explanation:Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is a neurotransmitter and peptide hormone. It is generated by cells in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus (PVN) and released into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system at the median eminence through neurosecretory terminals of these neurons. Stress causes the release of CRH.
The CRH is carried to the anterior pituitary through the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system, where it activates corticotrophs to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Cortisol, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and DHEA are all produced in response to ACTH.
Excessive CRH production causes the size and quantity of corticotrophs in the anterior pituitary to expand, which can lead to the creation of a corticotrope tumour that generates too much ACTH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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