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Question 1
Correct
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Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Lactate
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.
It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.
Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?Your Answer: It is less likely to cause hepatotoxicity than sevoflurane
Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane
Explanation:Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.
Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.
Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.
The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).
The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.
P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.
Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.
1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.
Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?Your Answer: Potentiation
Correct Answer: Synergism
Explanation:Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:
Additive interaction (summation).
Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.
Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.
Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.
Potentiation
In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).
Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).
This can be subdivided into the following categories:
-Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
-Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
-Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:
Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier poorly.
Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.
Explanation:Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.
Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.
They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.
It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?
Your Answer: Alfentanil has a more rapid onset because of its higher lipid solubility
Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil
Explanation:Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.
Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.
Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.
History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.
The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.
Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?Your Answer: Post-operative cognitive disorder
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.
When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas.
The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?Your Answer: Xenon
Correct Answer: Helium
Explanation:The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:
The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constantHelium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.
Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.
Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Your Answer: Causes misreading of mRNA
Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?
Your Answer: In the spinal cord, kappa receptors are predominantly localised in lamina IX
Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance
Explanation:Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:
1) Delta opioid receptor
2) Mu opioid receptor
3) Kappa opioid receptor
4) Orphan receptor-like 1
They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.
Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).
However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?
Your Answer: Minto
Correct Answer: Kataria
Explanation:Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.
Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.
The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.
The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults
The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.
The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.
Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine
Explanation:The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.
Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.
When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.
The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.
Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.
Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?
Your Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels
Explanation:Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).
Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?
Your Answer: Lean body weight
Explanation:Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.
This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.
A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.
Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.
Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.
Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?
Your Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death
Explanation:Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:
Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.
What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?Your Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B
Explanation:The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:
1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).
The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Maximal response occurs only when all receptor sites are occupied
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.
Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.
Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?
Your Answer: Tranylcypromine
Explanation:Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.
There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.
Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer: Thiopentone
Correct Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.
Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?Your Answer: Di-N-desmethyl-tramadol
Correct Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?
Your Answer: The formation of calcium carbonate does not require heat
Correct Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide
Explanation:Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.
Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.
The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?
Your Answer: Suxamethonium
Correct Answer: Teicoplanin
Explanation:The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis
Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.
Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.
Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.
Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.
Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.
Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.
Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.
Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
Your Answer: Dantrolene
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.
Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer: Is a measure of therapeutic index
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:
Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.
Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin
Explanation:The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.
0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).
It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.
Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.
The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml
Explanation:Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.
% solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml
% solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml
% solution ~ 10 mg/ml
Examples:
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- Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
- Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
- Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor
Explanation:Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.
Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.
Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.
Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules
Explanation:The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.
Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.
It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.
When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.
Therefore:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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