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Question 1
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A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?
Your Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa
Explanation:In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).
Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Correct
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A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg
Explanation:The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32 year-old active male presents with a three month history of pain in his feet and lower legs. He was previously diagnosed with diabetes at age 14 and treated with insulin. He admits to drinking 30 units of alcohol per week and is a current cannabis smoker. On examination, pain and temperature sensation in his feet are diminished, but joint position and vibratory sensation appear normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic polyneuropathy
Explanation:The given history suggests a small fibre painful peripheral sensory neuropathy, the most common cause of which is diabetes. Joint position sense and vibratory sensation are carried through large fibres, and therefore are not currently affected. Sensory nerves are affected more often than motor, so reflexes usually remain in tact.
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes impairment of joint position and vibratory sensation.
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIPD) causes a large fibre peripheral neuropathy with areflexia.
In syringomyelia there is impaired pain and temperature noted in the upper limbs.
Finally, with alcoholic polyneuropathy, all fibre types are affected (sensory and motor loss). It is usually gradual with long term alcohol abuse and may be accompanied by a nutritional deficiency. In addition, pain is a more dominant feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 5
Correct
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In which condition is the sniff test useful in diagnosis?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve palsy
Explanation:The phrenic nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm, the major respiratory muscle.
Phrenic nerve paralysis is a rare cause of exertional dyspnoea that should be included in the differential diagnosis. Fluoroscopy is considered the most reliable way to document diaphragmatic paralysis. During fluoroscopy a patient is asked to sniff and there is a paradoxical rise of the paralysed hemidiaphragm. This is to confirm that the cause is due to paralysis rather than unilateral weakness. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion
Explanation:Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
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A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
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Question 8
Correct
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Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer?
Your Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC)
Explanation:In hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC), mutations in MSH2, MSH6, PMS2 or MLH1 genes are found.
Ataxia telangiectasia – ATM gene is affected.
Familial adenomatous polyposis – APC gene is affected.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome – mutation of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene. Neurofibromatosis – mutation in or a deletion of the NF1 gene -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 9
Correct
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From the list of options, choose the most likely anaesthetic or analgesic cause of maternal hypotension.
Your Answer: Epidural anaesthetic
Explanation:In spinal anaesthesia, the needle parts the dura rather than tears it. In an epidural, however, the needle is meant to inject around the dura but may penetrate it by accident. Maternal hypotension is most likely to be caused by dural penetration during an epidural, as this is the generally intended procedure. Postdural puncture headache appears to be associated higher with a spinal than an epidural.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?
Your Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes
Explanation:Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old lady was brought to the emergency department in an unconscious state. She is a known drug addict and has a 1 day history of anuria. CXR revealed pulmonary oedema. Serum electrolytes showed hyperkalaemia. The next management step would be?
Your Answer: IV calcium gluconate
Explanation:IV calcium gluconate is the drug of choice in hyperkalaemia, as it is a life threatening condition and prompt management is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 12
Correct
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A 44-year-old female is admitted to the emergency with dyspnoea, syncope, fever and arthropathy. She was recently diagnosed with pulmonary emboli. Cardiovascular examination reveals an early diastolic sound with a mid diastolic rumble. The JVP is found to be elevated and there are prominent a waves. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Atrial myxoma
Explanation:Cardiac myxomas are the most common type of primary tumour of the heart. They are usually benign and arise from primary connective tissue. Most cardiac myxomas arise sporadically; however, 10% are hereditary (following an autosomal dominant pattern). Even though they may develop in any chamber of the heart, most (+-75 %) cardiac myxomas arise in the left atrium, usually from the interatrial septum, while the rest occur in the right atrium (ventricular myxomas are rare). Clinical features are primarily caused by obstruction of the blood flow through the heart and include dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations, syncope, weight loss, or even sudden death. Rarely, life-threatening conditions (e.g., stroke) may result from an embolization from the myxoma. Typical examination findings include abnormal heart sounds, such as a rumbling diastolic murmur over the apex or a characteristic tumour plop.
The diagnosis is not easily established clinically because of the nonspecific nature of symptoms. Echocardiography is the diagnostic procedure of choice. Surgical resection of the tumour is the curative treatment of choice. The prognosis is usually favourable, but tumours can recur after inadequate resection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Correct
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A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?
Your Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase
Explanation:Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.
Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).
The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A number of tests have been ordered for a 49-year-old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?
Your Answer: Pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage
Explanation:Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.
DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite.
Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves' disease?Your Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies
Explanation:Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
– Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
– Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
– Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
– Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti-sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
– The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 16
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the A&E department with a five-day history of back pain which is located in the lower thoracic region and is worsened by coughing and sneezing. There has been no change in bowel habit or urinary symptoms. Her past medical history includes breast cancer and osteoarthritis. On examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. Perianal sensation is normal and lower limb reflexes are brisk.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone + urgent MRI
Explanation:The patient has spinal cord compression until proven otherwise. Urgent assessment is required.
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.
Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28-year-old male complained of the following: nausea, vertigo, vomiting for longer than 30 minutes, tinnitus, and hearing loss in his left ear. Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Cyclazine (1st line)
Explanation:Cyclizine and prochlorperazine are both used for the treatment of Meniere’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for 2 hours. Which of the following ECG findings is an indication for thrombolysis in this patient?
Your Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads
Explanation:Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with evidence of ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI) or presumably new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) presenting within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if there are no contraindications to fibrinolysis. STEMI is defined as new ST elevation at the J point in at least two contiguous leads of 2 mm (0.2 mV) or more in men or 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in women in leads V2-V3 and/or 1 mm (0.1 mV) or more in other contiguous limb leads.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an indication for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
Your Answer: Previous myocardial infarction with non-sustained VT on 24 hr monitoring
Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome
Explanation:Class I indications (i.e., the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered): -Structural heart disease, sustained VT
-Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
-Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤35% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤35%, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤30% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI
-LVEF ≤40% due to prior MI, inducible VT or VF at EPSClass IIa indications (i.e., the benefit outweighs the risk and it is reasonable to administer the treatment):
-Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, nonischaemic cardiomyopathy
-Sustained VT, normal or near-normal ventricular function
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with 1 or more major risk factors
-Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy (ARVD/C) with 1 or more risk factors for sudden cardiac death (SCD)
-Long QT syndrome, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Nonhospitalized patients awaiting heart transplant
-Brugada syndrome, syncope or VT
-Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Cardiac sarcoidosis, giant cell myocarditis, or Chagas disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute severe chest pain and acute myocardial infarction was diagnosed. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis?
Your Answer: History of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month
Explanation:Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI
Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke within 3 months
Suspected aortic dissection
Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?
Your Answer: Immediate Laparoscopy
Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation
Explanation:A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regimen.
He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning.
Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?Your Answer: Reduce his nocturnal dose of mixed insulin
Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime
Explanation:The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old farmer, under treatment for depression, presents to the emergency department following an intentional overdose of an unidentified substance. On examination, he was found to be bradycardic, hypotensive, hyper-salivating, and disoriented. On ocular examination, his pupils were found to be miotic. What is the most likely substance he ingested?
Your Answer: An organophosphate insecticide
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?
Your Answer: Onset is typically in the third decade
Correct Answer: May be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound
Explanation:Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is less common than ADPKD (dominant form) but can already present with symptoms and be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 20-year-old boy presented with left hemiscrotal pain and fever for 2 days. He denied any history of trauma. On examination he was febrile. There was redness and tenderness of the left hemiscrotum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Give antibiotics
Explanation:The history is suggestive of acute Epididymo-orchitis. The treatment option is antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Men's Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 40-year-old male presented with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty in breathing for the past 2 hours. On examination he had bilateral ankle swelling. Investigations revealed proteinuria of 6g/d. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this presentation?
Your Answer: Reduced antithrombin III activity
Explanation:This patient has presented with a thromboembolic event most probably secondary to nephrotic syndrome (nephrotic-range proteinuria). Hypercoagulability is due to urinary loss of anticoagulant proteins, such as antithrombin III and plasminogen and an increase in clotting factors, especially factors I, VII, VIII, and X.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman comes for the advice regarding contraceptives. Her mother passed away due to cervical cancer and she worries about cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most suitable contraceptive method for her?
Your Answer: Barrier method
Explanation:Cervical cancer results from genital infection with HPV. PV infections can be transmitted via nonsexual routes, but the result from sexual contact. So the best contraceptive method in relation to prevention of cervical cancer is the barrier method. But it will not prevent cervical cancer a 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Women's Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents at the OPD complaining of excessive tiredness and frequent headaches. On examination, his blood pressure was 205/100 mmHg. Blood tests reveal a decreased serum potassium and renin level and elevated aldosterone level. Which condition is this patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's disease)
Explanation:Conn’s disease is a condition in which excessive amounts of aldosterone are secreted from the adrenal glands. Because aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium, it leads to a very high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He recently suffered a fracture of his right humerus with minimal trauma.
The results of the blood tests, taken on his arrival, prompted the referral:
Hb: 8.9 g/dL
WCC: 9.5 x 10^9/L
Plts: 140 x 10^9/L
MCV: 86 fL
ESR: 60mm/1st hour
Na+: 149 mmol/L
K+: 3.6 mmol/L
Urea: 15 mmol/L
Creatinine: 160 mmol/L
Calcium (corrected): 2.89 mmol/l
Albumin: 28g/L
Total protein: 89 g/L
X-ray of right humerus reported a possible pathological fracture. Which of the following investigations would help best in confirming the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bone marrow aspiration
Correct Answer: Protein electrophoresis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis with anaemia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), hypercalcaemia, renal impairment, and raised total protein with low albumin is multiple myeloma (MM). Protein electrophoresis will confirm the presence of monoclonal band of paraprotein. Of note, a radioisotope bone scan is not a good test for picking up the lytic lesions of MM.
Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.
Major criteria:
1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per dayMinor criteria:
1. 10-30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
4. Immunosuppression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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