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  • Question 1 - Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?

      Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Where do the seminal vesicles lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the seminal vesicles lie?

      Your Answer: Base of the bladder and prostate

      Correct Answer: Base of the bladder and rectum

      Explanation:

      The seminal vesicles are two lobulated membranous pouches situated between the fundus of the bladder and rectum and act as a reservoir for the semen and secrete a fluid that is added to the seminal fluid. Each sac is pyramidal in shape but they all vary in size not only in different individuals but also in the same individuals. The anterior surface is in contact with the fundus of the bladder, extending from near the termination of the ureter to the base of the prostate. Each vesicle consist of single tube, which gives off several irregular caecal diverticula. These separate coils and the diverticula are connected by fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?

      Your Answer: Factor V

      Correct Answer: Antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.

      Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Buccinator is a muscle of facial expression and is therefore innervated by the facial nerve. The lateral pterygoid, masseter, anterior belly of digastric and temporalis are all muscles of mastication and therefore innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum is prescribed metoclopramide. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman suffering from hyperemesis gravidarum is prescribed metoclopramide. What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide?

      Your Answer: Irreversibly inhibits H+/K+-ATPase

      Correct Answer: Dopamine antagonist

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is a potent dopamine-receptor antagonist with anti-emetic and prokinetic properties. It is therefore commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting, and to facilitate gastric emptying in patients with gastric stasis. The anti-emetic action of metoclopramide is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the central nervous system. Common adverse drug reactions associated with metoclopramide include restlessness (akathisia), and focal dystonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On...

    Correct

    • A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?

      Your Answer: Supination

      Explanation:

      Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Correct Answer: Skin

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are part of the immune system and they function mainly as antigen presenting cells. They are present in small quantities in tissues which are in contact in the external environment. Mainly in the skin and to a lesser extent in the lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. In the skin they are known as Langerhans cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Correct

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Among all body organs, the brain is most susceptible to ischaemia. Comprising of only 2.5% of total body weight, the brain receives 15% of the cardiac output. Oxygen extraction is also higher with venous oxygen levels approximating 13 vol%, and arteriovenous oxygen difference of 7 vol%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops acute renal failure. Which of the following physiological abnormalities of acute renal failure will be most life threatening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acute renal failure (ARF) is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys, resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) and non-nitrogenous waste products that are normally excreted by the kidney. This accumulation may be accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia, changes in body fluid balance and effects on many other organ systems. Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia are the two most serious biochemical manifestations of acute renal failure and may require medical treatment with sodium bicarbonate administration and antihyperkalaemic measures. If not appropriately treated these can be life-threatening. ARF is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic laboratory findings, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, or inability of the kidneys to produce sufficient amounts of urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The thoracic duct : ...

    Correct

    • The thoracic duct :

      Your Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The stapedius is the smallest skeletal muscle in the human body. At just over one millimetre in length, its purpose is to stabilize the smallest bone in the body, the stapes and is innervated by a branch of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The nutcracker effect of the alimentary canal is described as a nutcracker-like compression...

    Correct

    • The nutcracker effect of the alimentary canal is described as a nutcracker-like compression caused by the aorta and the superior mesenteric arteries on a certain section of the alimentary canal leading to bowel obstruction. Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal is usually obstructed by this nutcracker compression of the two arteries?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The ‘nutcracker effect’ is only seen in one part of the alimentary canal, and that is in the third part of the duodenum. This can happen when the superior mesenteric artery that passes across the duodenum and the aorta, posteriorly to the third part of the duodenum enlarges and starts compressing the duodenum. The result is an obstructed duodenum that inhibits passage of food.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What occurs during cellular atrophy? ...

    Correct

    • What occurs during cellular atrophy?

      Your Answer: Cell size decreases

      Explanation:

      Atrophy is the decrease in the size of cells, tissues, or organs. There are several causes including inadequate nutrition, poor circulation, loss of hormonal support or nerve supply, disuse, lack of exercise, or disease. An increase in cell size is termed hypertrophy which is distinguished from hyperplasia, in which the cells remain approximately the same size but increase in number.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Urology
      • Pathology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?

      Your Answer: Begins anterior to the lateral malleolus as a continuation of the lateral marginal vein

      Correct Answer: Has nine to twelve valves

      Explanation:

      It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Passing through the lesser sciatic foramen are the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Passing through the lesser sciatic foramen are the:

      Your Answer: Inferior gluteal artery

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures that pass through the lesser sciatic foramen include:

      – the pudendal nerve

      – the nerve to obturator internus

      – internal pudendal artery

      – the tendon of obturator internus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Correct

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the opening of the atrioventricular (AV)...

    Incorrect

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the opening of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: First heart sound

      Correct Answer: Beginning of diastole

      Explanation:

      Cardiac diastole refers to the time period when the heart is relaxed after contraction and is preparing to refill with blood. Both ventricular and atrial diastole are together known as complete cardiac diastole. At its beginning, the ventricles relax, causing a drop in the ventricular pressure. As soon as the left ventricular pressure drops below that in left atrium, the mitral valve opens and there is ventricular filling of blood. Similarly, the tricuspid valve opens filling the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Right anterior spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the...

    Correct

    • If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the greatest decrease due to which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Tissue cooling

      Explanation:

      With a constant blood flow to a given tissue bed, there will be an increase in oxygen extraction by the tissue with the following; an increase in tissue metabolism and oxygen requirements: warming (or fever), exercise, catecholamines and thyroxine. With cooling, the demand for oxygen decreases, leading to decreased oxygen extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of recent-onset of itching and fatigue. On examination, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was found to be high. Barium radiography of the biliary tract showed a 'beaded' appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gallstone ileus

      Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterised by patchy inflammation, fibrosis and strictures in intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts. It is a chronic cholestatic condition with 80% patients having associated inflammatory bowel disease (likely to be ulcerative colitis). Symptoms include pruritus and fatigue. ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) or MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) are diagnostic. Disease can lead to complete obliteration of ducts, which can result in liver failure. Cholangiocarcinoma is also a recognised complication..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      131
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man presents to the surgical out patient clinic with a direct inguinal hernia on the right side. He had undergone and appendicectomy 6 months prior. The examining doctor correlated the development of the hernia to iatrogenic nerve injury that happened during the operation. Which nerve had been injured?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Direct inguinal hernias occur because of weakness in the abdominal muscles. The ilioinguinal nerve is important for innervating the muscles of the lower abdominal wall and damage during appendicectomy therefore prevents the man from being able to contract abdominal muscles to pull the falx inguinalis over the weak fascia.

      The genitofemoral nerve innervates the cremaster muscle and injury to it would cause inability to elevate the testes.

      The subcostal nerve and the ventral primary ramus of T10 innervate the muscles, skin and fascia of the upper abdominal wall.

      The iliohypogastric nerve supplies the skin over the upper part of the buttock behind the area supplied by the subcostal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      109.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis?

      Your Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      Papillary carcinoma accounts for 70-80% of all thyroid cancers and is seen commonly in people aged 30-60 years. It is more aggressive in elderly patients. 10-20% cases may have recurrence or persistent disease. More common in females with a female to male ratio of 3:1. Papillary carcinomas can also contain follicular carcinomas. The common route of spread is through lymphatics to regional nodes in one-third cases and pulmonary metastasis can also occur. Papillary carcinomas of the thyroid have the best prognosis, especially in patients less than 45 years of age with small tumours confined to the thyroid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Lactase, an enzyme belonging to β-galactosidase family of enzymes, brings about the hydrolysis of the disaccharide lactose into galactose and glucose. In humans, it is present along the brush border membrane of the cells lining the small intestinal villi. Deficiency of lactase causes lactose intolerance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old gentleman was recently diagnosed with hypertension, with no other abnormalities on...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old gentleman was recently diagnosed with hypertension, with no other abnormalities on physical examination. Further investigations revealed the following :
      Na+ 144 mmol/l
      K+ 3.0 mmol/l
      Cl- 107 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/l.
      Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nelson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Conn syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overproduction of aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid) by the adrenal glands is known as Conn’s syndrome. It can be either due to an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma (50-60% cases) or adrenal gland hyperplasia (40-50% cases). Excess aldosterone leads to sodium and water retention, along with potassium excretion. This leads to arterial (non-essential) hypertension. Conn’s syndrome is the commonest cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Other symptoms include muscle cramps, headache (due to hypokalaemia) and metabolic alkalosis, which occurs due to increased secretion of H+ ions by the kidney. The raised pH of the blood traps calcium leading to symptoms of hypocalcaemia, which can be mimicked by liquorice ingestion and Liddle syndrome. To diagnose Conn’s syndrome, the ratio of renin and aldosterone is measured. Due to suppression of renin secretion, there is low renin to aldosterone ratio (<0.05). However, anti-hypertensives may affect the test results and should be withdrawn for 6 weeks. Computed tomography can also be done to detect the presence of adrenal adenoma. Cushing’s syndrome does not cause hypokalaemia with normal serum glucose levels. Nelson’s syndrome refers to increased ACTH secretion due to pituitary adenoma. Pheochromocytoma will not lead to hypokalaemia even though hypertension can be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      114.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:

      Your Answer: Copper

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.

      Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.

      Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.

      Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Physiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to...

    Correct

    • After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to use which of the following anticoagulants to store the blood?

      Your Answer: Citrate

      Explanation:

      Calcium is necessary for coagulation to occur. Citrate being a chelator and combining with calcium ions to form un-ionised compound will prevent coagulation. Following transfusion the citrate is removed by the liver with in a few minutes. Oxalate also works on the same principle but it is toxic to the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (10/14) 71%
Pelvis (1/3) 33%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (2/6) 33%
Head & Neck; Neurology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
General (1/3) 33%
Physiology (4/10) 40%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (0/1) 0%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Urology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Passmed