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  • Question 1 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone| however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Gigantism

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadism is found to be a feature in gigantism also known as acromegaly, a condition caused by growth hormone abnormalities. The most common cause of gigantism is a pituitary adenoma. Hypogonadism exists among other endocrinopathies found in gigantism. Other causes of hypogonadism include Kleinfelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by premature testicular failure. The other options listed, primary hypothyroidism, teratoma, tuberous sclerosis and hepatoblastoma are all associated with precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer: 13 years

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer...

    Correct

    • During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?

      Your Answer: 8 months

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A term infant delivered via C-section develops tachypnoea, grunting, flaring, and intercostal retractions...

    Correct

    • A term infant delivered via C-section develops tachypnoea, grunting, flaring, and intercostal retractions 10 minutes after birth. A chest radiograph reveals well-aerated lungs with fluid in the fissure on the right, prominent pulmonary vascular markings, and flattening of the diaphragm. His oxygen saturation is 90%. He improves within a few hours and requires no oxygen. What condition is this infant most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the new-born is a condition associated with the delayed clearance of amniotic fluid from the new-born. The X-ray findings are typical of this condition. As the name implies and was noted in this patient, it is not a lasting condition and resolves within 24-72 hours after birth. The differential diagnoses usually present with different chest X-ray findings:- Aspiration pneumonia shows infiltrates in the lower lobes of the lungs- Congenitally acquired pneumonia shows patchy, asymmetrical densities- Meconium aspiration shows hyperinflation and patchy asymmetric airspace disease- Pulmonary oedema shows cephalization of pulmonary veins and indistinctness of the vascular margins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Headache due to depression

      Correct Answer: Analgesic misuse headache

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

      Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss is the most frequent long-term consequence

      Correct Answer: Petechiae are due to thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most frequent cause of congenital infection worldwide, with an estimated incidence in developed countries of 0.6–0.7% of all live births.The clinical spectrum of congenital CMV infection varies widely, from the complete absence of signs of infection (asymptomatic infection) to potentially life-threatening disseminated disease. At birth, 85–90% of infected infants are asymptomatic, and 10–15% present with clinical apparent infection (symptomatic disease).The presentation in this latter group is a continuum of disease expression whose more common findings are petechiae, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, microcephaly, and other neurologic signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most commonly seen in PANDAS (Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections)?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when:- Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever.- The symptoms of OCD or tic symptoms suddenly become worse following a strep infection.The symptoms are usually dramatic, happen “overnight and out of the blue,” and can include motor or vocal tics or both and obsessions, compulsions, or both. In addition to these symptoms, children may become moody or irritable, experience anxiety attacks, or show concerns about separating from parents or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?

      Your Answer: Exploratory surgery

      Explanation:

      The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 10 years of age

      Correct Answer: 9 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?

      Your Answer: Re-assess at 13 years of age

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Answer: LaparoscopyThe diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization| none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3–5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8–1% after 6 months of age.Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally| the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his...

    Incorrect

    • A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Fanconi anaemia

      Explanation:

      Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer: Raised FSH

      Correct Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of the following findings would you expect to be in his blood results?

      Your Answer: Increased serum chloride levels

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Progressive vomiting due to pyloric stenosis leads to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs....

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs. His mother denied any history of trauma. The boy had a sore throat a few weeks ago. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Check child protection register

      Correct Answer: Coagulation profile

      Explanation:

      This history is suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura following a respiratory infection. A typical rash involving thighs and buttocks is often seen in this age group. Coagulation profile is the suitable answer from the given answers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one...

    Correct

    • A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at 4 months of age?

      Your Answer: The ability to string vowels together whilst babbling is not expected at around 4 months of age

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones at 4 months of age:Social and Emotional:Smiles spontaneously, especially at people Likes to play with people and might cry when playing stops Copies some movements and facial expressions, like smiling or frowningLanguage/CommunicationBegins to babble Babbles with expression and copies sounds he hears Cries in different ways to show hunger, pain, or being tiredCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Lets you know if he is happy or sad Responds to affectionReaches for a toy with one hand Uses hands and eyes together, such as seeing a toy and reaching for it Follows moving things with eyes from side to side Watches faces closely Recognizes familiar people and things at a distance Movement/Physical DevelopmentHolds head steady, unsupported Pushes down on legs when feet are on a hard surface May be able to roll over from tummy to back Can hold a toy and shake it and swing at dangling toys Brings hands to mouth When lying on stomach, pushes up to elbows

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days...

    Incorrect

    • A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?

      Your Answer: Hep B

      Correct Answer: Cholestatic jaundice

      Explanation:

      Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer: Atrial Flutter

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which...

    Incorrect

    • A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?

      Your Answer: The right eyelid is numb

      Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both arms. Ataxia and dysarthria are also observed along with occasional involuntary grimacing of the face. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Correct

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer: Left mainstem bronchus

      Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      126.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic disorder

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      74.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non accidental injury

      Correct Answer: Mongolian spot

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?

      Your Answer: It is also associated with meconium staining of the amniotic fluid

      Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody diarrhoea. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      The most likely organism is enterohemorrhagic verotoxin-producing E.coli. It usually causes haemolytic uremic syndrome.

      Crohn’s disease rarely manifests in an acute manner.

      Polio and giardiasis usually manifest with non-bloody diarrhoea.

      Thread worms don’t always cause symptoms, but people often experience itchiness around their bottom or vagina. It can be worse at night and disturb sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following do you expect to see?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: High voltage T waves in the electrocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia presents with high voltage (peaked) T waves on ECG. Other features on ECG include smaller p-waves and wider QRS complexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/2) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/2) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (2/3) 67%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed