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  • Question 1 - Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features are most likely to be specifically associated with the vascular subtype (type IV) of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dysmorphic features, including thin nose and large eyes

      Explanation:

      Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (EDS) is a group of genetic connective tissue disorders with over 13 clinical subtypes. Hyper-mobility is common to many of these subtypes. Vascular EDS is identified by thin, translucent skin prone to easy bleeding, as well as the risk of early arterial rupture, gastrointestinal perforation and uterine rupture. Those affected have dysmorphic features including a thin nose and lips, sunken cheeks and large eyes. The other features including| atrophic scars, a dominant family history, hyper extensible skin and kyphoscoliosis are not specific to vascular EDS and overlap in many of the subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      147.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which...

    Correct

    • A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer: Any one of the above

      Explanation:

      Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say that he has had frequent breath holding spells which occur almost 4 times per week. Which of the following nutritional deficiency most often results in the breath holding spells like the ones experienced by this child?

      Your Answer: Riboflavin

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      Breath-holding spells are usually caused by either a change in the child’s breathing or a slowing of the heart rate. In some children, breath-holding spells may be related to iron deficiency anaemia, a condition in which the body doesn’t produce a normal number of red blood cells. Conclusion: Not only Iron deficiency anaemia but also iron deficiency alone without anaemia is associated with a risk of high-frequency cyanotic breath holding spells. Iron therapy results in reduction in spells’ frequency which was correlated with increasing ferritin and iron levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is true about haemophilia C? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about haemophilia C?

      Your Answer: The bleeding risk correlates to the severity of the deficiency

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT) is normal

      Explanation:

      In haemophilia C, The severity of the deficiency is based on plasma factor XIC (clotting) activity. Major factor XI deficiency is present when the activity of factor XI in plasma is less than 1-15 IU/dL.In major deficiency factor XI, bleeding is related to injury, especially when trauma involves tissues rich in fibrinolytic activators, such as the oral mucosa, the nose, and the urinary tract. Unlike patients with severe haemophilia A or B, patients with major factor XI deficiency do not spontaneously bleed.The aPTT is usually prolonged in factor XI deficiency (but depends on the sensitivity of the reagent and test system–partial deficiency can be missed), whereas the PT and TT are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of the following findings would you expect to be in his blood results?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Progressive vomiting due to pyloric stenosis leads to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae

      Explanation:

      Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised FSH and reduced LH and testosterone

      Correct Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH

      Explanation:

      While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%. The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She also complains of irregular and sporadic periods. During the examination, you notice behavioural traits that suggest a deterioration in peripheral vision. An eye exam confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain reveals a large non-functional pituitary tumour. Which structure does the tumour exert pressure on to cause her visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic finding seen in patients with optic chiasm lesion.The pituitary gland is situated within the pituitary fossa. Just above the pituitary fossa is the optic chiasm and so any expanding masses from the pituitary gland commonly press on it, causing bitemporal hemianopia.Other options:- Compression of the optic nerve would not cause more severe, generalised visual loss. Also, the optic nerve is not anatomically related to the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour.- The optic tract is again not closely anatomically related with the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour. Also, damage to the optic tract on one side would cause homonymous hemianopia.- The lateral geniculate nucleus is a centre of cells in the thalamus and is unlikely to be compressed by a pituitary tumour. Its function is to convey sensory information from the optic tract to more central parts of the visual pathway.- The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain and so may not be compressed by an enlarging pituitary tumour.Other visual defects:- Left homonymous hemianopia: It is the visual field defect to the left, due to the lesion of the right optic tract.- Homonymous quadrantanopias are seen in parietal (inferior homonymous quadrantopia) and temporal lobe lesions (superior homonymous quadrantopia). Mnemonic: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, and conversely, an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.Incongruous defects suggest an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest optic radiation or occipital cortex lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?

      Your Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents

      Explanation:

      6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture

      Explanation:

      Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what’s the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce

      Explanation:

      An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pustular psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      68.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge...

    Correct

    • A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge from the his left ear over the past two weeks. He has a history of frequent episodes of ‘ear infection’ but has been otherwise well. There is no reported fever. On examination, the child is systemically well. The child is co-operative with otoscopy which shows an intact pink tympanic membrane on the right but a possible perforation on the left. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for ENT opinion

      Explanation:

      The child has Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) which is defined as a perforated tympanic membrane with persistent drainage from the middle ear for more than 2-6 weeks.CSOM differs from chronic serous otitis media in that chronic serous otitis media may be defined as a middle ear effusion without perforation that is reported to persist for more than 1-3 months. Patients with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) present with a draining ear of some duration and a premorbid history of recurrent acute otitis media, traumatic perforation, or the placement of ventilation tubes. Typically, they deny pain or discomfort. A common presenting symptom is hearing loss in the affected ear. Reports of fever, vertigo, and pain should raise concerns about infratemporal or intracranial complications. A history of persistent CSOM after appropriate medical treatment should alert the physician to consider cholesteatoma.The external auditory canal may or may not be oedematous and is not typically tender. The discharge varies from fetid, purulent, and cheese like to clear and serous. Granulation tissue is often seen in the medial canal or middle ear space. The middle ear mucosa visualized through the perforation may be oedematous or even polypoid, pale, or erythematous.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: External angular dermoid

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Correct Answer: Basophil

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Correct

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable mass and drawing up of legs. They treat the baby with an air reduction enema, suspecting intussusception. However, the procedure is interrupted as the baby develops abdominal distention and starts to drop their saturations. What would be the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum

      Explanation:

      Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum is necessary to avoid tension pneumoperitoneum. Air reduction enema is the main stay of treatment for intussusception and is successful in around 90% of cases. A serious potential risk of this procedure is perforation of the colon and a pneumoperitoneum, leading to rapid distension of the abdomen and splinting of the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound....

    Correct

    • A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed by generalised shaking. Doctors suspect he might have experienced a fit. History taking and clinical examination shows he has a macular erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid which has been present since birth. The lesion has not changed in size and aspect. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome is a genetic condition affecting various blood vessels. I causes brain, eye, and skin abnormalities, including three major features: port-wine birthmark, leptomeningeal angioma, and glaucoma. Most people are born with a port-wine birthmark that is usually located on the face, including the eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alvarado score

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following blood results: Na=135 mmol/l K=2.3 mmol/lUrea=2.0 mmol/lCreatinine 30 µmol/lP=0.8 mmol/lBicarbonate=17 mmol/lCa=2.5 mmol/lAdditionally, urinalysis reveals 1+ glucose and 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bartter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fanconi tubular syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fanconi tubular syndrome is characterised by malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances commonly absorbed by the proximal tubule. Hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is usually present. Also, urinalysis reveals an increased fractional excretion of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch nodules of the iris. What is the most likely sign to observe on examination?

      Your Answer: Axillary freckles

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common autosomal dominant disease. The Lisch nodule represents one of the most common NF1 ocular manifestations.NF1 is caused by a genetic mutation which can cause tumours to grow on nerve endings| these cutaneous neurofibromas are benign tumours which grow on the skin, often first appearing during the hormonal changes that occur in teenage years. They vary in size and can appear anywhere on the body. The number of neurofibromas present differs greatly between individuals and over a lifetime Café au lait spots (coffee coloured birthmarks) are often the first and most common sign of NF1, and these are often found at birth and are usually evident by 2 years of age.Other features of NF1 can include Lisch nodules of the iris (small pigmentation in the iris which causes no disturbance to vision), skin-fold freckling (freckling/pigmentation in the groyne and armpits), plexiform neurofibromas (or sub cutaneous neurofibromas) which are diffuse tumours that grow along a nerve and are found in at least 25 % of people with NF1, optic gliomas (tumour of the optic nerve), and skeletal complications including pseudarthrosis and scoliosis. Macrocephaly (large head size) is also common, and short stature is found in around a third of people with NF1. Rare complications include a risk of malignancy, organs being compromised by neurofibromas, seizures, and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2 and he's been found to have glycosuria, which resolved after his recovery. Which investigation is necessary to perform as part of the follow-up?

      Your Answer: Fasting blood glucose concentration

      Explanation:

      The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back and chest.What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical tretinoin

      Correct Answer: An oral tetracycline for three months

      Explanation:

      When topical agents are insufficient or not tolerated, or in cases of moderate to severe acne, especially when the chest, back and shoulders are involved, systemic antibiotics are often considered the next line of treatmentSystemic antibiotics should not be used to treat mild acne because of the risk of increasing resistance. The additional use of nonantibiotic topical agents in combination with oral antibiotics should be considered. Topical retinoids with oral antibiotics may give a faster response and be more effective than either drug used alone.Treatment with tetracyclines and erythromycin reduces P. acnes within the follicles, thereby inhibiting the production of bacterial-induced inflammatory cytokines. These agents also have inherent anti-inflammatory effects, such as suppressing leukocyte chemotaxis and bacterial lipase activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?...

    Correct

    • Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?

      Your Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?

      Your Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.​Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg. He is otherwise well with no fever or history of trauma. Clinical examination reveals limited limb motion due to the pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes’ disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ disease is a disease of the hip in children. It presents with pain that is typically located in the groin area. The pain is often present only during physical activity. Most children seek medical attention because of limping.

      Osgood–Schlatter disease is pain caused by inflammation of the patella tendon at the tibial insertion.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis occurs classically in adolescence (M:F = 3:2)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Correct

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which among the following nerves carries the sensation from the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The lesser palatine nerve makes a smaller contribution. Because of this, otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.Anatomical Rationale:Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the pharynx.The primary arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial artery. Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which may result in bleeding during a tonsillectomy.Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical nodes.TonsillitisThe inflammation of tonsils is usually due to bacterial aetiology (50%) – group A Streptococcus, the remainder of the causes are viral.May be complicated by the development of an abscess (quinsy), which may distort the uvula.Indications for tonsillectomy include recurrent acute tonsillitis, and enlargement causing sleep apnoea.Dissection tonsillectomy is the preferred technique with haemorrhage being the most frequent complication. Delayed otalgia may occur owing to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Correct

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution| the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Correct

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      40
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (3/3) 100%
Nutrition (0/2) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/4) 50%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (3/3) 100%
ENT (3/3) 100%
Neonatology (4/4) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed