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  • Question 1 - A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at...

    Correct

    • A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?

      Your Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest

      Explanation:

      The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      237.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and pustular discharge from both ears. He has been feeding poorly for the last two days. Clinical examination reveals a full fontanelle but no other neurological signs. The doctor performs a lumbar puncture, took a blood sample, and started him on IV antibiotics. What would be the expected CSF picture for bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: CSF glucose: blood glucose 0.5, protein 0.05g/l. Cells 200, mononuclear cells

      Correct Answer: CSF glucose: blood glucose 0.4, protein 0.2g/l. Cells 400, 390 polymorphs, 10 lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The CSF picture in bacterial meningitis has the following characteristics: several polymorphs, cells, protein that is maximum 5g/l, a few lymphocytes and glucose that accounts for the two thirds of the blood level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      246.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer: A target or bulls eye patch is typical of this condition

      Correct Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      528.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration

      Explanation:

      Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thalassaemia with chest infection

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis

      Explanation:

      The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?

      Your Answer: A positive family history exists in 5-10% of patients

      Correct Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)

      Explanation:

      Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's obese and he is the shortest in his class. His mother is worried and brings him in to the clinic. History reveals he had a renal transplant last year. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lawrence moon biedel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The boy had a renal transplant, for which he needs immune suppression. For the exogenous immune suppression an exogenous steroid is needed, which in this case is responsible for the primary Cushing syndrome manifesting with short stature. The administration of steroids before the physiological fusion of the growth plate can lead to premature fusion with permanent cessation of bone growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the 50th to the 9th percentile on the growth chart for weight. History reveals the baby vomits after each meal. Gestation and delivery were normal without any perinatal or postnatal complications. The baby was healthy at the new-born examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infantile colic

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis affects infants, typically in the second to fourth weeks of life and is caused most commonly by hypertrophy and thickening of the pylorus. It usually presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. The infant usually has a normal appetite. Features include: ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed, constipation and dehydration may also be present and a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      106.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?

      Your Answer: Optic glioma

      Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg...

    Correct

    • A pathologist examines a histological section and identifies a clump of Reed Sternberg cells.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Reed-Sternberg cells are classically associated with Hodgkin lymphoma.Classical diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells are large (15 to 45 micrometres), have abundant slightly basophilic or amphophilic cytoplasm and have at least two nuclear lobes or nuclei. Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells must have at least two nucleoli in two separate nuclear lobes. The nuclei are large and often rounded in contour with a prominent, often irregular nuclear membrane, pale chromatin and usually one prominent eosinophilic nucleolus, with perinuclear clearing (halo), resembling a viral inclusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 17 year old female presented with irregular menstrual cycles for 4 months....

    Correct

    • A 17 year old female presented with irregular menstrual cycles for 4 months. On examination her weight was 85 kg and height was 145 cm. She was not on any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Oligomenorrhoea and BMI of 40.4 is suggestive of Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). To diagnose PCOS 2 out of following 3 criteria should be present : oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone) and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?

      Your Answer: Breast-bud development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prepare to intubate baby

      Explanation:

      Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension about 10 days later. What would be the characteristic blood test finding in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depressed CH 50 level

      Explanation:

      Because the medical history included tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension, there is a strong suspicion of a case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Patients with PSGN usually have serological findings showing depressed serum haemolytic component CH50 and serum concentrations of C3. Sometimes depressed C4 levels are also apparent, but not always, therefore, the answer to this question is: depressed CH50 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia, and dysphagia. On examination, patchy white spots were noted in his oropharynx. An upper GI endoscopy revealed similar lesions in the oesophagus. Which of the following is most likely to identify the underlying pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral serology

      Explanation:

      Based on the given scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Thus, the most appropriate investigation to confirm the underlying pathology in this patient would be viral serology. Rationale:The presence of oesophageal candidiasis is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression. The causes of immunosuppression can be chemotherapy, with haematological malignancy, HIV or inhaled steroids. In patients with HIV, oesophageal candidiasis is part of the spectrum of AIDS-defining illnesses and usually occurs when the CD4 count is < 200 cells/microL. Other AIDS-defining illnesses include PCP pneumonia and CMV infections.Oesophageal Candidiasis:It is characterised by white spots in the oropharynx with extension into the oesophagus. It seldom occurs without an associated underlying risk factor like broad-spectrum antibiotic usage, immunosuppression and immunological disorders.Patients may present with oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia and dysphagia.Treatment is directed both at the underlying cause (which should be investigated for) and with oral antifungal agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with a boy her age. Which of the following advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They both need immediate treatment without further testing. A test of cure is not necessary.

      Explanation:

      Treating persons infected with C. trachomatis prevents adverse reproductive health complications and continued sexual transmission, and treating their sex partners can prevent reinfection and infection of other partners. Treating pregnant women usually prevents transmission of C. trachomatis to neonates during birth. Chlamydia treatment should be provided promptly for all persons testing positive for infection. Treatment delays have been associated with complications (e.g. PID) in a limited proportion of women. To minimise disease transmission to sex partners, persons treated for chlamydia should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after single-dose therapy or until completion of a 7-day regimen and resolution of symptoms if present. To minimise risk for reinfection, patients also should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until all of their sex partners are treated. Persons who receive a diagnosis of chlamydia should be tested for HIV, GC, and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital ptosis

      Explanation:

      A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with vomiting. For the past 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with vomiting. For the past 6 months she has been experiencing weight loss, poor appetite and lethargy. When the physician inquires about the possibility of these symptoms' beings self-induced, both the patient and her family deny. Lab reports show sodium 125 mmol/l, potassium 5.5 mmol/l, urea 7.9 mmol/l and creatinine 67 µmol/l. A blood gas shows a bicarbonate of 12.4 mmol/l. Which of the following is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      Addison disease is adrenocortical insufficiency due to the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. It affects glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The onset of disease usually occurs when 90% or more of both adrenal cortices are dysfunctional. The most common symptoms are fatigue, muscle weakness, loss of appetite, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Adrenal insufficiency can be caused by autoimmune disease or suddenly stopping steroid medicines used to treat other conditions, among other causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb

      Explanation:

      In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains significant damage to his frontal lobe.Which of the following would you expect him to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomically, the frontal lobe is the largest lobe of the brain lying in front of the central sulcus. It is divided into 3 major areas defined by their anatomy and function. They are the primary motor cortex, the supplemental and premotor cortex, and the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the primary motor, supplemental motor, and premotor areas lead to weakness and impaired execution of motor tasks of the contralateral side. The inferolateral areas of the dominant hemisphere are the expressive language area (Broca area, Brodmann areas 44 and 45), to which damage will result in a non-fluent expressive type of aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA deficiency

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis and Vitamin D analogues

      Explanation:

      One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas requires surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall health is normal and clinical examination reveals no discharge, hearing loss or fever. Just by looking at it, the pinna of the ear looks swollen and red. Also, pushing the tragus leads to pain. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous external auditory canal and an otherwise healthy tympanic membrane. The bony external canal courses through which bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The external auditory canal (EAC) extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Its lateral portion is fibrocartilaginous and its medial portion is bony. Its bony portion is formed by the tympanic portion of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of bone marrow failure...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of bone marrow failure syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kostmann syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bone marrow failure syndromes are characterized by the bone marrow’s inability to produce cells of different lineage. They can be classified as those affecting one or two cell lineages or those affecting all three of them. Fanconi syndrome, along with dyskeratosis congenita, is one of the inherited bone marrow failure syndromes that causes pancytopenia. Other inherited disorders affecting hematopoietic lineage include Diamond-Blackfan anaemia, Schwachman-Diamond syndrome, congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia (CAMT) and Thrombocytopenia absent radii (TAR) syndrome. Acquired causes of bone marrow failure that lead to pancytopenia include aplastic anaemia, drugs, nutritional deficiencies, and viral infections. Kostmann syndrome is an autosomal recessive form of severe neutropenia, most likely due to excessive neutrophil apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a...

    Incorrect

    • What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a 4-year-old boy suffering from febrile convulsions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apnoea

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is known to cause respiratory depression and finally apnoea as a side effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fertility is affected

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Passmed