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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following medications is the most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide is known to cause photosensitive rash as part of an allergic reaction during which the person might also have wheezing, chest tightness or dyspnoea. The rash typically occurs on the areas of body exposed to the sun, like the back, hands, arms and legs.
      Comparatively, digoxin produces a rash that comprises of nearly the whole body.
      Atenolol may also cause skin rash but that is not photosensitive.
      Clopidogrel might produce an non-photosensitive urticarial rash.
      Ezetimibe causes a severe allergic reaction but only rarely. This rash is also non-photosensitive and is in the form of blisters, associated with itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1 and FVC measurements

      Correct Answer: ANCA

      Explanation:

      Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
      The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 42-year-old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented with generalized...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented with generalized body weakness. Investigations revealed hyperkalaemia. Which of the following can be expected in his ECG?

      Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Explanation:

      In hyperkalaemia the ECG will show tall, tented T waves as well as small P waves and widened QRS complexes. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss. Which of the following will be the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: TCA

      Correct Answer: Buccal prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history of intermittent attacks suggests Meniere’s disease. Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that can lead to dizzy spells (vertigo) and hearing loss. In most cases, Meniere’s disease affects only one ear. Prochlorperazine can be used for complaints of nausea, vomiting and vertigo associated with Meniere’s disease. It is available as a tablet, injection and buccal preparation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium. She is...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium. She is accompanied by her daughter who noticed the acute change. The patient has had a nagging cough with purulent sputum and haemoptysis for the last few days. Previous history includes a visit to her GP two weeks back because of influenza.
      On examination, the patient appears markedly agitated with a respiratory rate of 35/min. Blood gases reveal that she is hypoxic. White blood cell count is 20 x 109/l, and creatinine is 250 mmol/l. Chest X-ray is notable for patchy areas of consolidation, necrosis and empyema formation.
      Which of the following lead to the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Though a common community pathogen, Staphylococcus Aureas is found twice as frequently in pneumonias in hospitalized patients. It often attacks the elderly and patients with CF and arises as a co-infection with influenza viral pneumonia. The clinical course is characterized by high fevers, chills, a cough with purulent bloody sputum, and rapidly progressing dyspnoea. The gross pathology commonly reveals an acute bronchopneumonia pattern that may evolve into a necrotizing cavity with congested lungs and airways that contain a bloody fluid and thick mucoid secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.
      Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12-15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old male was brought in unconscious state with high fever, swollen nasal...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male was brought in unconscious state with high fever, swollen nasal mucosa and constricted pupils. Which of the following substances can cause this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      This presentation is suggestive of cocaine toxicity. The major effects of cocaine poisoning include CNS effects such as agitation, seizures and psychosis, and cardiovascular effects such as dysrhythmias, myocardial infarction and cardiovascular collapse. The common route for cocaine ingestion is through the nose, hence the irritated swollen septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A drunken man has fallen asleep in a position with his arm hanging...

    Correct

    • A drunken man has fallen asleep in a position with his arm hanging down. After waking up he complained of wrist drop and sensory loss at the web of the thumb. Which of the following structures is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      This presentation is known as ‘Saturday night palsy’. When someone falls asleep with a arm hanging over the arm rest of a chair, the radial nerve compresses and causes wrist drop and loss of sensation at the web of the thumb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man, originally from Pakistan, was admitted with ascites and weight loss....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man, originally from Pakistan, was admitted with ascites and weight loss. The protein level on ascitic tap was 9 g/l.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Hepatic cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      This is a low protein level, indicating the fluid is transudative. The only answer choice that is a transudative fluid is in hepatic cirrhosis. Exudative fluid would be seen in tuberculous peritonitis, peritoneal lymphoma, with liver mets, and with intra-abdominal malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man known with Barrett's oesophagus and oesophagitis now complains of a six-week history of gradual dysphagia with solids. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the abnormal (metaplastic) change in the mucosal cells lining the lower portion of the oesophagus, from normal stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium with interspersed goblet cells, normally present only in the colon. This change is considered to be premalignant and is associated with a high incidence of transition to oesophageal adenocarcinoma. Clinical features of carcinoma of the oesophagus include: loss of weight, hoarseness of voice, dysphagia, and cough. Barium swallow and oesophagoscopy with biopsy should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze.
      On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube.
      How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old female, known case of antiphospholipid syndrome, arrives at the clinic due...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female, known case of antiphospholipid syndrome, arrives at the clinic due to a swollen and painful left leg. Doppler ultrasonography confirms the diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis. She was previously diagnosed with DVT 4 months back and was on warfarin therapy (target INR 2-3) when it occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer: Life-long warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      If the INR in the range of 2-3 has still resulted in thrombosis, the target INR is increased to 3-4. However, because the risk of bleeding increases as the INR rises, the INR is closely monitored and adjustments are made as needed to maintain the INR within the target range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms...

    Correct

    • A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms and dyspnoea. She recently started taking a new medicine and she feels it might have aggravated her symptoms.
      Which of the following is likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Timolol eye drops

      Explanation:

      β-blockers are the class of drug most often chosen to treat glaucoma, although other medical therapies are available. Systemic absorption of timolol eye drops can cause unsuspected respiratory impairment and exacerbation of asthma. Physicians should be alert to the possibility of respiratory side-effects of topical therapy with β-blockers. Leukotriene antagonists and salbutamol are used in asthma treatment. HRT and ferrous sulphate do not lead to the exacerbation of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 69-year-old man complains of a significant decrease in weight, SOB, chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old man complains of a significant decrease in weight, SOB, chest pain discomfort and cough. Examination results are constricted left pupil and drooping left eyelid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Destructive lesions of the thoracic inlet is related to the apical lung cancer called Pancoast tumour, along with the involvement of cervical sympathetic nerves (the stellate ganglion) and brachial plexus which can lead to a Horner’s syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 52-year-old hypertensive, smoker presents to ER with right side weakness. He gives...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old hypertensive, smoker presents to ER with right side weakness. He gives a history of multiple falls and lack of concentration. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Shy-drager syndrome

      Correct Answer: Multi-infarct dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient is a heavy smoker and hypertensive which are risk factors of atherosclerosis and cerebrovascular diseases. The acute onset of the weakness and the lateralization indicates a cerebral infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to ED with acute dyspnoea. He was treated...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to ED with acute dyspnoea. He was treated for an anterior myocardial infarction a few weeks back. On examination, he is dyspnoeic, peripheral oxygen saturation is 85% on air and he has bibasal crepitations. What is the most suitable investigation to be done at this stage to find the cause for his presentation?

      Your Answer: Echo

      Explanation:

      This presentation is compatible with acute pulmonary oedema probably due to sudden papillary muscle rupture or VSD. Echo should be the answer to establish the underlying cause. It will also help to identify other complications associated with MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer: t(9;22)

      Correct Answer: t(8;14)

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the...

    Correct

    • In over 70% of the cases, inflammatory bowel disease associates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      More than 70% of cases with inflammatory bowel disease are associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis. The most common association is that of ulcerative colitis, in which case it progresses independently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently being...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently being treated with rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. He is commenced on streptomycin.
      Which among the following is the most likely neurological side-effect of streptomycin?

      Your Answer: Cochlear damage

      Correct Answer: Vestibular damage

      Explanation:

      Vestibular damage is a neurological side effect of streptomycin.

      Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside bactericidal antibiotic. It is used in the treatment of tularaemia and resistant mycobacterial infections.
      The most common neurological side-effect is vestibular damage leading to vertigo and vomiting.
      Cochlear damage is less frequent and results in deafness.
      Other side-effects include rashes, angioneurotic oedema, and nephrotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A young man complains of dyspnoea and tiredness. His blood film shows spherocytes...

    Correct

    • A young man complains of dyspnoea and tiredness. His blood film shows spherocytes and 6% reticulocytes. What test would you perform next?

      Your Answer: Coomb's Test

      Explanation:

      A Coomb’s test should be performed to test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Spherocytes and reticulocytes in the blood film are indications for haemolytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting...

    Correct

    • A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting his left arm. He suffers from depressive psychosis for the last 10 years, for which he has been receiving intermittent chlorpromazine and amitriptyline but has not been on any therapy for the last 4 months. He describes that his two brothers also had tremors. Upon examination, he has a resting tremor of his left hand with cogwheel rigidity of that arm and mild generalized bradykinesia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease because of the unilateral presentation. In addition, cogwheel rigidity is a classic presenting symptom. Neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism is usually bilateral and symmetrical. Essential tremors do not cause rest tremors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due to progressive ataxia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Retinal and cerebellar haemangiomas are key features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Retinal haemangiomas are bilateral in 25% of patients and may lead to vitreous haemorrhage. Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition predisposing to neoplasia. It is due to an abnormality in the VHL gene located on short arm of chromosome 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A prolonged QT interval is linked to which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A prolonged QT interval is linked to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Prolonged QT interval can be seen in the following conditions: Hypocalcaemia, hypothermia, severe bradycardia, Class 1 and 3 antiarrhythmic drugs, non-sedating antihistamines, tricyclic antidepressants etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.

      Investigations were as follows:
      Hb 13.1 g/dl
      WCC 8.6 x109/l
      PLT 201 x109/l
      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 µmol/l
      17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal
      Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
      Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
      Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
      Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old female presented with complaints of haematuria and fatigue. She had a history of bloody diarrhoea starting 7 days previously. On investigation, her serum urea and creatinine were raised and proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most suitable diagnosis for her?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)

      Explanation:

      HUS syndrome occurs mostly in children after some days of bloody diarrhoea. Damaged red blood cells also damage the kidney filtering unit and lead to sudden renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there is a palpable mass up to the umbilicus. His clothes smell of ammonia and he is known to be a chronic alcoholic. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Correct Answer: Urethral catheter

      Explanation:

      It is obvious in this case that chronic alcohol use has contributed to the patient’s urinary incontinence which requires a urethral catheter. Suprapubic catheters are usually preferred in cases of acute urinary retention while condom catheters are indicated in less severe cases of urinary incontinence. We would administer antibiotics if we suspected a urinary infection causing the urinary incontinence, but in this case the cause is obvious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that these attacks...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with painful genital ulceration. She reports that these attacks have been recurrent over the past 4 years. She has been treated previously with oral acyclovir but this has had little effect on the duration of her symptoms. Over the past year, she has noticed almost weekly attacks of mouth ulcers that heal slowly. Past medical history is significant for treatment of thrombophlebitis two years ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet disease is a rare vasculitic disorder that is characterized by a triple-symptom complex of recurrent oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, and uveitis. The systemic manifestations can be variable. Ocular disease has the greatest morbidity, followed by vascular disease generally from active vasculitis. Cutaneous manifestations can occur in up 75% of patients with Behcet disease and can range from acneiform lesions, to nodules and erythema nodosum. GI manifestations can be severe. Differentiating Behçet disease from active inflammatory bowel disease can be clinically difficult. Herpes would have ideally responded to acyclovir. Sarcoidosis does not have genital and oral ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with type-1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
      Which of the following is most likely to make you ask her to defer pregnancy at this stage?

      Your Answer: Hb A1C 9.4%

      Explanation:

      Pregnancies affected by T1DM are at increased risk for preterm delivery, preeclampsia, macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, intrauterine fetal demise, fetal growth restriction, cardiac and renal malformations, in addition to rare neural conditions such as sacral agenesis.
      Successful management of pregnancy in a T1DM patient begins before conception. Research indicates that the implementation of preconception counselling, emphasizing strict glycaemic control before and throughout pregnancy, reduces the rate of perinatal mortality and malformations.
      The 2008 bulletin from the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence recommends that preconception counselling be offered to all patients with diabetes. Physicians are advised to guide patients on achieving personalized glycaemic control goals, increasing the frequency of glucose monitoring, reducing their HbA1C levels, and recommend avoiding pregnancy if the said level is > 10%.
      Other sources suggest deferring pregnancy until HbA1C levels are > 8%, as this margin is associated with better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 60-year-old male presents with intermittent haemoptysis and chronic, productive cough. He has...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male presents with intermittent haemoptysis and chronic, productive cough. He has a strong history of smoking and has recently lost weight. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The combination of haemoptysis, chronic productive cough, and recent weight loss in a smoker is a strong indication of bronchogenic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 45-year-old smoker presented with sudden onset of chest pain radiating to his...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old smoker presented with sudden onset of chest pain radiating to his left arm, with associated sweating. ECG showed ST elevation in leads I, aVL and V1-V4. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Anterior MI

      Explanation:

      An anterior wall myocardial infarction is characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL and V1-V5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 65-year-old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy.
       
      What condition does he most likely have?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
      Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
      Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 62-year-old woman with scleroderma and Raynaud's phenomenon complains of weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman with scleroderma and Raynaud's phenomenon complains of weight loss and has been referred for an opinion. Gastrointestinal associations of progressive systemic sclerosis include which of the following?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal stricture

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal stricture is a complication of systemic sclerosis, think of the oesophagus as sclerosing (fibrosing) leading to stricture and you never forget. Based on the clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis this is more likely than pancreatic dysfunction, PSC, lymphoma, or diverticulitis. Additionally, CREST syndrome stands for: calcinosis cutis, Raynaud’s phenomenon (which the patient has), oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias), this is a form of systemic sclerosis you should be familiar with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is true of patients with oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer: Octreotide and terlipressin have the same outcome profile in terms of variceal bleed mortality

      Correct Answer: In spontaneous bacterial peritonitis cefotaxime appears to be a useful antibiotic

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone has been shown to have no effect on the mechanisms of portal hypertension. Also, chronic use of propranolol can reduce the risk of variceal bleeding. The banding of large varices has been shown to be effective, too. Octreotide and terlipressin are also both used to prevent secondary haemorrhage. Cefotaxime is the most commonly used cephalosporin when treating spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Spironolactone helps to combat secondary hyperaldosteronism which is related to liver failure. It also helps to treat salt and water retention, which both contribute to portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 40-year-old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old truck operator who smokes one and a half packs of cigarette per day complains of a cough and fever for the last three days. He also has right-sided chest pain when he inhales. On examination he is slightly cyanosed, has a temperature of 38.1°C, a respiratory rate of 39/min, a BP of 104/71 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 132/min. He has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the right lung base.
      What could be a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Bronchopneumonia presents as a patchy consolidation involving one or more lobes, usually the dependent lung zones, a pattern attributable to aspiration of oropharyngeal contents.

      Symptoms of bronchopneumonia may be like other types of pneumonia. This condition often begins with flu-like symptoms that can become more severe over a few days. The symptoms include:
      – fever
      – a cough that brings up mucus
      – shortness of breath
      – chest pain
      – rapid breathing
      – sweating
      – chills
      – headaches
      – muscle aches
      – pleurisy, or chest pain that results from inflammation due to excessive coughing
      – fatigue
      – confusion or delirium, especially in older people

      There are several factors that can increase your risk of developing bronchopneumonia. These include:
      – Age: People who are 65 years of age or older, and children who are 2 years or younger, have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia and complications from the condition.
      – Environmental: People who work in, or often visit, hospital or nursing home facilities have a higher risk for developing bronchopneumonia.
      – Lifestyle: Smoking, poor nutrition, and a history of heavy alcohol use can increase your risk for bronchopneumonia.
      – Medical conditions: Having certain medical conditions can increase your risk for developing this type of pneumonia. These include: chronic lung disease, such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), HIV/AIDS, having a weakened immune system due to chemotherapy or the use of immunosuppressive drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old male patient with atrial fibrillation, who was on warfarin came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient with atrial fibrillation, who was on warfarin came to the clinic with an INR report of 7. Upon questioning it was revealed that he had been started on another drug recently, which was the reason for the prolonged INR. Which of the following drugs cause this?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      Cimetidine inhibits hepatic microsomal activity, which may cause reduced metabolic clearance of warfarin and augments its anticoagulant effect. Pravastatin doesn’t affect the warfarin metabolism. Other drugs are enzyme inducers which will increase warfarin clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed profuse, watery, green coloured diarrhoea on the fifth day of antibiotics. What is the organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for diarrhoea is pseudomembranous colitis which is caused by Clostridium difficile. Pseudomembranous colitis is an inflammatory disease of the colon where the antibiotic-induced change in the balance of normal gut flora allows overgrowth of C difficile. Any antibiotic can cause this but the chances are higher with ampicillin, clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, and cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Of the following medications, which is available over the counter (OTC) to treat...

    Correct

    • Of the following medications, which is available over the counter (OTC) to treat heavy blood loss during menstruation?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Since March 2011, tranexamic acid has been available to buy from pharmacies to help treat heavy blood loss during menstruation. NSAIDs (such as ibuprofen and naproxen) are available to purchase over the counter, but these aid in the treatment of dysmenorrhea rather than menorrhagia. MIRENA, norethisterone, and COCP are not available to purchase over the counter to treat heavy blood loss (however COCP is available for contraceptive use).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 33-year-old lady presented with complaints of an erythematous rash over her shins,...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old lady presented with complaints of an erythematous rash over her shins, along with arthritis and painful swollen knees. What will be the single most likely finding on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Lofgren’s syndrome is characterised by a triad of erythema nodosum, arthritis and bilateral lymphadenopathy. It is a variant of sarcoidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin:        12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count:    8.2 x 109/l (4-11) Platelets:                  200 x 109/l (150-400) C reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) ESR:                         15 mm/hr (<20) Sodium:                   140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium:              3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine:              92 µmol/l (79-118) ALT:                         12 U/l (5-40) Alkaline phos:        724 U/l (39-117) Calcium:                  2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease of the skeleton. In healthy bone, a process called remodeling removes old pieces of bone and replaces them with new, fresh bone. Paget’s disease causes this process to shift out of balance, resulting in new bone that is abnormally shaped, weak, and brittle. Paget’s disease most often affects older people, occurring in approximately 2 to 3% of the population over the age of 55.

      Many patients with Paget’s disease have no symptoms at all and are unaware they have the disease until X-rays are taken for some other reason. When bone pain and other symptoms are present, they can be related to the disease itself or to complications that arise from the disease — such as arthritis, bone deformity, and fractures. In patients with Paget’s disease, alkaline phosphatase levels are usually quite elevated — a reflection of the high bone turnover rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction.

      His coagulation profile shows:
      Plts: 173 x 10^9/L
      PT: 12.9 secs
      APTT: 84 secs

      Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 60-year-old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below.
      Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144)
      Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110)
      Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0)
      Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04)
      Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide

      Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI

      Explanation:

      According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital...

    Correct

    • An 80 year-old Zimbabwean woman with known rheumatoid arthritis was admitted to hospital with a four week history of weight loss, night sweats and cough. She was given a course of Amoxicillin for the past week but her condition deteriorated and she was referred to the hospital when she developed haemoptysis.
       
      She was on maintenance prednisolone 10 mg once per day and four weeks earlier, she had received infliximab for a flare up of rheumatoid arthritis. She lived with her husband but had been admitted to hospital himself with influenza four days earlier. She was a lifelong non-smoker and worked most of her life as a missionary in Zimbabwe and South Africa.
       
      On examination she looked cachexic and was pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5°C. Her blood pressure was 181/101 mmHg, pulse 121 beats per minute and oxygen saturations of 89% on room air. Her heart sounds were normal and there were no audible murmurs. Auscultation of her lung fields revealed bronchial breath sounds in the left upper zone. Examination of her abdomen was normal.
       
      Mantoux test < 5mm (after 48 hours)
      A chest radiograph revealed cavitating left upper lobe consolidation.
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-primary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis is a chronic disease commonly caused by either endogenous reactivation of a latent infection or exogenous re-infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
      Post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis (also called reactivation tuberculosis) develops in 5%-20% of patients infected with M. tuberculosis.

      Found mainly in adults, this form of tuberculosis arises from the reactivation of bacilli that lay dormant within a fibrotic area of the lung. In adults, reinfection with a strain of mycobacterium that differs from that which caused the primary infection is also possible. Predisposing factors include immunosuppression, diabetes, malnutrition and alcoholism.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor ? (TNF-?). It is FDA approved for many autoimmune conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. One of the many known side effects of infliximab therapy is reactivation of latent tuberculosis (TB). Because of the resemblances in clinical and radiological features, tubercular lesions in the lung may mimic malignancy. TB accounts for 27% of all infections initially presumed to be lung cancer on imaging studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 28-year-old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history of fast and regular palpitations. There is no history of collapse. On examination she was well, pulse rate was 102 bpm, which was regular and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. Her JVP was not elevated. Heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following can be expected due to the physiological changes which occur during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular alterations which occur during pregnancy are for the optimal growth and development of the foetus and help to protect the mother from the risks of delivery, such as haemorrhage. The changes are characterized by an increased vascular volume, cardiac output, and heart rate, with a marked fall in vascular resistance and reduction in blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following abnormal facial movements is not a well-recognised association? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following abnormal facial movements is not a well-recognised association?

      Your Answer: Facial synkinesis - Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease may have an asymmetric tremor which is variable in character and may be predominantly resting, postural, or kinetic.
      Progressive supra-nuclear palsy – blepharospasm, apraxia of lid opening and/or apraxia of lid closing.
      Tourette’s syndrome – one or more motor or vocal tics.
      Multiple Sclerosis – continuous facial myokymia.
      Tardive dyskinesia is a side-effect of conventional antipsychotics, neuroleptics, anticholinergics, and toxins resulting in stiff, jerky movements of your face and body

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made.
      What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer: Avoid chlorpromazine in the treatment of agitation

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On neurological examination, his upper and lower limbs are normal however he has a homonymous hemianopia with central preservation. Where is the most likely cause of his problems within the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the optic radiation can cause a homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, as a result of collateral circulation offered to macular tracts by the middle cerebral artery.
      Lesions in the optic tract also cause a homonymous hemianopia, but without macular sparing.
      Lesions in the optic chiasm, optic nerve, and temporal lobe cause bitemporal hemianopia, ipsilateral complete blindness, and superior homonymous quadrantanopia respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      10.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (5/7) 71%
Respiratory System (7/8) 88%
Cardiovascular System (3/4) 75%
Geriatric Medicine (1/1) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (3/3) 100%
Nervous System (4/6) 67%
Hepatobiliary System (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (3/4) 75%
Musculoskeletal System (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (2/3) 67%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (3/4) 75%
Renal System (1/2) 50%
Passmed