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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?
Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.
The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).
The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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Given the following values:
Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
PEEP = 10 cmH2O
Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury.
The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following:
Airway-patent
Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds.
Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg.
Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established.
The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?Your Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg
Explanation:These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Patients do not normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma, this needs to be correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines).
There are minimal systolic pressure changes.
There may be associated anxiety, fright or hostilityClass III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state – crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
There are classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure.
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale.
Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.
This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.
This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.
There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:
Your Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body
Explanation:The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.
Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?
Your Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency
Explanation:Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following statements is about the measurement of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is correct?
Your Answer: The result matches clearance of the indicator if it is renally inert
Explanation:The measurements of GFR are done using renally inert indicators like inulin, where passive rate of filtration at the glomerulus = rate of excretion. Normal value is about 180 litres per day.
GFR is altered by renal blood flow but blood flow does not need to be measured.
The reabsorption of Na leads to a low excretion rate and low urine concentration and therefore its use as an indicator would lead to an erroneously LOW GFR.
If there is tubular secretion of any solute, the clearance value will be higher than that of inulin. This will be either due to tubular reabsorption or the solute not being freely filtered at the glomerulus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer: The pulmonary vascular resistance is very high and therefore a majority of blood passes from the right side of the heart through the ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.
Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?Your Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable
Explanation:A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.
Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A).
Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to LThe numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.
The length is proportional to the applied pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5% dextrose within a 15-minute period. Which of the following mechanisms is expected to affect the urine output?
Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis
Correct Answer: Inhibition of arginine vasopressin (AVP) secretion
Explanation:Changes in the osmolality of body fluids (changes as minor as 1% are sufficient) play the most important role in regulating AVP secretion. The receptors that monitor changes in osmolality of body fluids (termed osmoreceptors) are distinct from the cells that synthesize and secrete AVP, and are located in the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) of the hypothalamus. The osmoreceptors sense changes in body osmolality by either shrinking or swelling. When the effective osmolality of the plasma increases, the osmoreceptors send signals to the AVP synthesizing/secreting cells located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, and AVP synthesis and secretion are stimulated. Conversely, when the effective osmolality of the plasma is reduced, secretion is inhibited. Because AVP is rapidly degraded in the plasma, circulating levels can be reduced to zero within minutes after secretion is inhibited.
In this scenario, the osmolality of the plasma will decrease to an estimate of 2.5%, hence inhibition of AVP.
Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors is incorrect because the increase in plasma volume is still below the threshold for its activation.
Osmotic diuresis is incorrect because 5% dextrose is isotonic, hence osmotic diuresis is not probable.
Renin is inhibited when an excess of NaCl in the tubular fluid is sensed by the macula densa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?
Your Answer: pKA
Explanation:For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).
The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.
Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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