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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he is found to have a prominent carotid pulse but a feeble femoral pulse. He was also found to be hypertensive with blood pressure in his upper limbs found to be 40 mmHg more than that of the lower limbs.Auscultation reveals an ejection-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and the left interscapular area and an audible ejection click at the apex.An ECG reveals features suggestive of mild left ventricular hypertrophy and a chest X-ray reveals mild cardiomegaly with notches on the lower surface of the 3rd, 4th and 5th ribs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the clinical scenario provided is coarctation of the aorta. It contributes to about 4% of all congenital heart disease and is more prominent in males than females.It is associated with trisomy 13 and 18, Turner syndrome, valproate toxicity as well as ventricular septal defects, persistent ductus arteriosus, mitral valve abnormalities and berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis. Other associated cardiac abnormalities include a bicuspid aortic valve (50%), mitral valve disease, aortic regurgitation (20%) and subaortic stenosis. Ninety-eight per cent of coarctations occur at the level of the pulmonary artery after the subclavian artery. It is for this reason that, on observation, the proximal blood pressure varies compared with the distal blood pressure. The blood pressure in the right arm is often higher than that in the left arm. Clinically, these children present with hypertension, prominent carotid pulses, radio-femoral delay, left ventricular hypertrophy and an ejection systolic murmur maximum over the posterior left interscapular area. An apical click over the aortic valve may be heard. Coarctation of the aorta may be simple (post-ductal), or complex (pre-ductal or with a septal defect), and may be associated with aortic stenosis, transposition of the great arteries or a bicuspid aortic valve. The ECG and chest radiograph may be normal. However, as the child enters the first decade, evidence of cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure, post-stenotic dilatation with a dilated subclavian artery and rib notching may be noticed. The ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy in infancy and right axis deviation. Complications of coarctation of the aorta include left ventricular failure, cerebral haemorrhage, aortic dissection, renal vascular stenosis and infective endocarditis. This condition may result in death due to an aortic aneurysm or rupture in the third or fourth decade of life. It may also cause premature ischaemic heart disease as a result of hypertension. If left untreated, 20% of individuals die before 20 years of age and 80% before 50 years of age. Treatment options include surgical balloon dilatation or the grafting of a subclavian flap, and should surgical correction not normalise the blood pressure, further medical management is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      147.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According...

    Correct

    • A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below. Oxygen Saturation Levels:
      • Superior vena cava: 73%
      • Right atrium: 71%
      • Right ventricle: 72%
      • Pulmonary artery: 86%
      • Left ventricle: 97%
      • Aorta: 96%
      Pressure Measurements:
      • Right atrium: 6 mmHg
      • Pulmonary artery: 53/13 mmHg
      • PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure): 15 mmHg
      • Left ventricle: 111/10 mmHg
      • Aorta: 128/61 mmHg
      Which of the following is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Key observations in the results:

      1. Oxygen Saturation Step-Up:
        • There is a significant step-up in oxygen saturation from the right ventricle (72%) to the pulmonary artery (86%). This suggests the presence of left-to-right shunting of blood.
      2. Pressure Differences:
        • The pressure in the pulmonary artery is elevated (53/13 mmHg), indicating pulmonary hypertension.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA):
        • PDA can cause increased pulmonary blood flow, leading to a step-up in oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery pressures can also be elevated due to increased blood flow.
      2. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension:
        • Typically presents with elevated pulmonary pressures but does not usually show a step-up in oxygen saturation.
      3. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Would result in elevated right ventricular pressure but would not explain the step-up in oxygen saturation.
      4. Septum Primum Atrial Septal Defect (ASD):
        • Would result in a step-up in oxygen saturation from the right atrium to the right ventricle, not between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
      5. Tetralogy of Fallot:
        • Characterized by right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. Oxygen saturation levels would typically be lower in the systemic circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7444.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT)

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21805
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
      • Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
      • Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
      • Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
      • Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
      All of the following abnormalities are present in this patient, except?

      Your Answer: Over-riding aorta

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Key Observations:

      1. Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
        • Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
        • The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
      2. Pressure Analysis:
        • The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
        • The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
      3. Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
        • There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
      2. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
        • Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
      3. Over-riding Aorta:
        • Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
      4. Right-to-Left Shunt:
        • The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
      5. Aortic Stenosis:
        • Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.

      Conclusion:

      Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      180.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her parents for the confirmation of the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transthoracic Echocardiography

      Correct Answer: Transoesophageal Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen? ...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Complete atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart diseases such as complete atrioventricular septal defects are most likely to cause large left to right shunts leading to faltering growth due to chronic severe hypoxia, pulmonary oedema, and feeding problems. Isolated atrial septal defects or ventricular septal defects result in relatively smaller shunts. Pulmonary stenosis and bicuspid aortic valve do not cause chronic systemic hypoxia. People with these conditions are often asymptomatic and only show some symptoms with intense physical activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Correct

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Correct Answer: Blalock- Taussig shunt

      Explanation:

      Blalock-Thomas-Taussig shunt is a surgical procedure done to increase pulmonary blood flow in cases like pulmonary atresia and results in a continuous murmur.The type of murmur which is heard during the systole and remains continuous till the second heart sound is known as a continuous murmur. This murmur is often intense and considered rough. It can also be accompanied by quivering. There are numerous causes of a continuous murmur that differ depending on the location and components of this murmur. It is caused by the shunting of blood from a high-pressure circulation to a low-pressure circulation. Pathological causes of a continuous murmur include patent ductus arteriosus, aortopulmonary window, AV malformation, coarctation of aorta, any acquired trauma, and iatrogenic cause like interventional or surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?

      Your Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration

      Explanation:

      Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Endocardial fibroelastosis

      Correct Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A new-born baby is found to have a loud heart murmur but is...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby is found to have a loud heart murmur but is otherwise well 6-hour baby after birth.Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot usually is diagnosed after a baby is born, often after the infant has an episode of turning blue during crying or feeding (a tet spell). A loud heart murmur is usually present.An atrial septal defect is present at birth, but many babies do not have any signs or symptoms.Coarctation of the aorta is usually diagnosed after the baby is born. How early in life the defect is diagnosed usually depends on how mild or severe the symptoms are. New-born screening using pulse oximetry during the first few days of life may or may not detect coarctation of the aorta.In babies with a more serious condition, early signs usually include:pale skinirritabilityheavy sweatingdifficulty breathingBabies born with pulmonary atresia will show symptoms at birth or very soon afterwards. They may be cyanotic. However, it is not uncommon for a heart murmur to be absent right at birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Correct

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      86.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?

      Your Answer: Lown–Ganong–Levine syndrome

      Correct Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome

      Explanation:

      Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1Most common type of congenital LQTSDefect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p → defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypesJervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Associated with congenital deafnessAutosomal recessiveAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmiasRomano-Ward syndrome No associated deafnessAutosomal dominantAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      94.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis with VSD closure

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band

      Explanation:

      The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur. Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of...

    Incorrect

    • An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of Fallot- HypocalcaemiaBased on the clinical scenario, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Spurius result

      Correct Answer: Di George syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient would be DiGeorge syndrome due to 22q11 deletion. It causes embryonic defects of the third and fourth branchial arches. It is sporadic in 90% of cases and 10 % inherited from parents as autosomal dominant.Characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost...

    Incorrect

    • An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer: TOF

      Correct Answer: PDA

      Explanation:

      PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: First degree heart block

      Correct Answer: Tall T waves

      Explanation:

      On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?

      Your Answer: Fixed splitting of S2

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the echocardiography. Which of the following condition most likely predisposes to this finding?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Several types of right-sided aortic arch exist, the most common ones being right-sided aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery and the mirror-image type. The variant with aberrant left subclavian artery is associated with congenital heart disease in only a small minority of affected people. The mirror-image type of right aortic arch is very strongly associated with congenital heart disease, in most cases tetralogy of Fallot. A right-sided aortic arch does not cause symptoms on itself, and the overwhelming majority of people with the right-sided arch have no other symptoms. However when it is accompanied by other vascular abnormalities, it may form a vascular ring, causing symptoms due to compression of the trachea and/or oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

      Your Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?

      Your Answer: 1 major and 2 minor criteria

      Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

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Cardiovascular (15/29) 52%
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