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  • Question 1 - Co-amoxiclav is used first line for which of the following indications: ...

    Correct

    • Co-amoxiclav is used first line for which of the following indications:

      Your Answer: Animal bite

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is used first line for infected and prophylaxis of infection in animal and human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding calcium channel blockers, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding calcium channel blockers, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blockers inhibit L-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels in arterial smooth muscle causing vasodilation.

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers inhibit L-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels in arterial smooth muscle, causing relaxation and vasodilation (reduction in peripheral vascular resistance). They also block calcium channels within the myocardium and conducting tissues of the heart which produces a negative inotropic effect by reducing calcium influx during the plateau phase of the action potential.
      They have a variety of uses, including:
      Hypertension
      Angina
      Atrial fibrillation
      Migraine
      Calcium channel blockers have been found to be moderately useful in the prevention of migraines. The best evidence is for this is with verapamil. This may be due to the prevention of the arteriolar constriction that is associated with migraine. They are commonly used for this elsewhere in the world but are not currently licensed for this use in the UK.
      The following are common side effects of all calcium-channel blockers:
      Abdominal pain
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Nausea and vomiting
      Palpitations
      Peripheral oedema
      Skin reactions
      Tachycardia
      Verapamil is highly negatively inotropic and reduces cardiac output, slows the heart rate and may impair atrioventricular conduction. It may precipitate heart failure, exacerbate conduction disorders, and cause hypotension at high doses and should not be used with beta-blockers. Nifedipine has less myocardial effects than verapamil and has no antiarrhythmic properties but has more influence on the vessels. Nimodipine is used solely for the prevention and treatment of vascular spasm following aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 22 year old male has been stabbed and is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old male has been stabbed and is brought to the ED with a stab wound to his upper limb. On examination, the patient is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joints of the ring and little finger. However, the proximal interphalangeal joint is intact. The most likely affected nerve is which of the following, and at which level is this occurring?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at wrist

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve at elbow

      Explanation:

      The medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus is innervated by the ulnar nerve. Paralysis of this muscle results in loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring and little finger.
      Flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joint is preserved as this is a function of the flexor digitorum superficialis which is innervated by the median nerve.
      The ulnar nerve is not correct as ulnar nerve injury at the wrist would not affect the long flexors, and the injury must have been more proximal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary:

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide

      Explanation:

      ADH release is inhibited by low plasma osmolality, alcohol, caffeine, glucocorticoids and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

      ADH release is stimulated primarily by raised plasma osmolality detected by osmoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus. Other factors that increase ADH release include: extracellular fluid volume depletion, angiotensin II, nausea, pain, stress, exercise, emotion, hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness. She is started on treatment with a drug. The treatment results in her baby being born with poor tone, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, and a goitre

      Out of the following, which drug is most likely responsible for the baby's condition?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy and postpartum, lithium is an effective treatment for relapse prevention in bipolar disorder. However, lithium has also been associated with risks during pregnancy for both the mother and the unborn child. Recent large studies have confirmed the association between first-trimester lithium exposure and an increased risk of congenital malformations.

      Lithium levels need to be monitored more frequently throughout pregnancy and the postnatal period.

      If given in the 1st-trimester, lithium is associated with a risk of fetal cardiac malformations, such as Ebstein’s anomaly.

      If given in the 2nd and 3rd-trimesters, there is a risk of the following:
      1. hypotonia
      2. lethargy
      3. feeding problems
      4. hypothyroidism
      5. goitre
      6. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are: ...

    Incorrect

    • Langhans giant cells, seen in granulomatous inflammation. are:

      Your Answer: Specialised dendritic cells found in skin

      Correct Answer: Multinucleated cells formed from fusion of epithelioid cells

      Explanation:

      A granuloma is a collection of five or more epithelioid macrophages, with or without attendant lymphocytes and fibroblasts; epithelioid macrophages are altered macrophages which have turned themselves over to becoming giant phagocytosing and killing machines, they often fuse to become multinucleate (Langhans) giant cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking...

    Correct

    • Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking and thigh adduction weakness at the hip joint.

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve is a sensory and motor nerve that emerges from the lumbar plexus and innervates the thigh.

      This nerve supplies motor innervation to the medial compartment of the thigh, making it necessary for thigh adduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Dehydration

      Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs used in the management of hyperkalaemia does not affect serum potassium levels:

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Calcium gluconate is given to antagonise cardiac cell membrane excitability to reduce the risk of arrhythmias. It has no effect on serum potassium levels unlike the alternative drugs listed above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the body as well as left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face. She also has complaints of vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Further examination of her cranial nerves suggest the presence of Horner's Syndrome. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that she is suffering from a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Wallenberg syndrome is also known as lateral medullary syndrome and posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome. It is the most common posterior circulation ischemic stroke syndrome. The primary pathology of Wallenberg syndrome is occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) or one of its branches.

      It is characterized by vertigo with nystagmus, nausea and vomiting, and sometimes hiccups, dysphonia, dysarthria, and dysphagia often present with ipsilateral loss of gag reflex, ipsilateral ataxia with a tendency to fall to the ipsilateral side, pain and numbness with impaired facial sensation on the face, impaired taste sensation, and impaired pain and temperature sensation in the arms and legs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      50.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (4/5) 80%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Inflammatory Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Fluids And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
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