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  • Question 1 - Regarding bronchial innervation which of the following is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding bronchial innervation which of the following is correct:

      Your Answer: Alpha 1 receptors increase bronchial constriction

      Explanation:

      Stimulation of β2 receptors results in smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation. α1 receptors cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles although minor to the β2 effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle relaxation ahead of the stimulus

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Nitric oxide causes relaxation of smooth muscles ahead of the stimulus. Clinically it is used as a potent vasodilator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart,...

    Correct

    • If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart, the rate will be approximately:

      Your Answer: 100/min

      Explanation:

      The normal heart beat is about 70/min. This is due to a predominant parasympathetic activity. If sympathetic activity was unopposed the heart rate would have been 150/min. When both the noradrenergic and cholinergic systems are blocked the heart rate is 100/min. This is the normal firing rate of the SA node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8BP: 90/60 mmHgPulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by: ...

    Correct

    • Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by:

      Your Answer: Inhibiting the breakdown cAMP

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In Hirschsprung disease which one is incorrect ...

    Correct

    • In Hirschsprung disease which one is incorrect

      Your Answer: Due to congenital absence of myenteric and submucosal plexuses

      Explanation:

      During normal prenatal development, cells from the neural crest migrate into the large intestine (colon) to form the networks of nerves called the myenteric plexus (Auerbach plexus) (between the smooth muscle layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall) and the submucosal plexus (Meissner plexus) (within the submucosa of the gastrointestinal tract wall). In Hirschsprung’s disease, the migration is not complete and part of the colon lacks these nerve bodies that regulate the activity of the colon. The affected segment of the colon cannot relax and pass stool through the colon, creating an obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation...

    Correct

    • Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation of covalent cross-linkages?

      Your Answer: Factor XIIIa

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII or fibrin stabilizing factor is an enzyme of the blood coagulation system that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of this factor (FXIIID) affects clot stability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding blood supply to the heart; ...

    Correct

    • Regarding blood supply to the heart;

      Your Answer: Coronary arteries fill as the heart relaxes

      Explanation:

      The heart muscles acts like the skeletal muscle in the fact that it also compress the vessels during contraction. As the pressure in the ventricle is slightly greater than in the aorta the coronary vessels collapse during systole. Blood flows through them during the diastole phase of contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the blood supply to the liver? ...

    Correct

    • What is the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow. Oxygen is provided from both sources; approximately half of the liver’s oxygen demand is met by the hepatic portal vein, and half is met by the hepatic arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Correct

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diuretics is associated with metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is in the diuretic and carbonic anhydrase inhibitor families of medication. It works by decreasing the amount of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate in the body and can thus cause metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes (hypokalaemia, hyponatremia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Correct

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into...

    Correct

    • Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into an amino acid sequence?

      Your Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide. This is known as translation and follows after the process transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: CN 2

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?

      Your Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC

      Explanation:

      Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state. Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.Treatment of MDMA overdose:Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old female is diagnosed with SLE based on her complaints of polyarthralgia, mouth ulcers and ANA positivity. Labs reveal normal urinalysis, urea and electrolytes. ESR is 90mm in the first hour. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg/day

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of SLE as it prevents disease progression and has relatively mild side effects, for instance headache, nausea etc. Its use reduces the usage of corticosteroids. It is particularly effective when the disease is less severe and there is no organ involvement. Cyclophosphamide and prednisolone are indicated in cases of renal, neurological and lung involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Α1

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause uterine contraction during pregnancy. They are linked to Gq-proteins that activate smooth muscle contraction through the IP3 signal transduction pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Cells mediating innate immunity include: ...

    Correct

    • Cells mediating innate immunity include:

      Your Answer: Natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      Natural killer cells have features of both innate and adaptive immunity. They play an important part in defence against tumours and viruses. They are non specific and do not generate immunological memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is true about bone marrow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true about bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Yellow marrow is mainly fat cells with scanty blood vessels and capillaries

      Correct Answer: At birth the bone marrow is entirely red marrow and is converted to yellow marrow with age

      Explanation:

      The two types of bone marrow are red marrow, which consists mainly of hematopoietic tissue, and yellow marrow, which is mainly made up of fat cells. Red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells arise in red marrow. Both types of bone marrow contain numerous blood vessels and capillaries. At birth, all bone marrow is red. With age, more and more of it is converted to the yellow type; only around half of adult bone marrow is red.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?...

    Correct

    • Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?

      Your Answer: Right homonymous hemianopia

      Explanation:

      Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion or pressure on the left optic tract. Total blindness of the left eye is due to a complete occlusion of the left optic nerve. Bipolar hemianopia is due to a midline chiasmal lesion. Left nasal hemianopia due to a lesion involving the left perichiasmal area. Right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is due to involvement of the lower left optic radiations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Correct

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Correct

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the...

    Correct

    • The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the following group of nerves?

      Your Answer: CN III, IV, V1, VI

      Explanation:

      The superior and inferior divisions of oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of ophthalmic V1 and the abducens nerve (VI)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Correct

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Where is the normal upper border of the liver situated? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the normal upper border of the liver situated?

      Your Answer: 6th rib midclavicular line on right

      Explanation:

      Assessment of liver margins is important clinically to determine the size of the liver and is done via percussion during the physical examination. The liver typically extends from the fifth intercostal space or 6th rib to the right costal margin in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib on anterior axillary line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except:

      Your Answer: Alpha-amylase

      Explanation:

      The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli which extend from the cell known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes. All these enzymes except alfa amylase are brush border enzymes. Alfa amylase is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (29/30) 97%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Connective Tissue (4/4) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Genetics (3/3) 100%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Passmed