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Question 1
Incorrect
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The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?
Your Answer: Femoral sheath
Correct Answer: Fascia lata
Explanation:Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle: Superior: Inguinal ligament Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles Roof: Fascia Lata (cribriform fascia at the saphenous opening) Trasversalis fascia forms part of the roof of the inguinal canal
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You see a 23 year old women in clinic with cervicitis. Which gram negative intracellular organism is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K subtypes) is the most common cause in this age group and fits the descriptors given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following tests for the detection of chlamydia is considered the gold standard?
Your Answer: Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
Explanation:Chlamydia is one of the most prevalent STIs in the UK. Many infected individuals can be asymptomatic making it difficult to detect. The gold standard in the diagnosis of Chlamydia is the nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT). A sample is taken from a vulvovaginal self swab, or a cervical swab on speculum examination in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in patients of childbearing age?
Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis is a common condition which results in a foul smelling discharge from the vagina without any inflammation. It is the most common cause of abnormal PV discharge. Most of the women are asymptomatic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?
Your Answer: ESR up by 4 folds
Correct Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.
Explanation:There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.
At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?Your Answer: Days 13-18
Correct Answer: Days 6-12
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old.
In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Peer support
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.
Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.
→ Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
→ Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
→ Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
→ Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.
Which is the best contraceptive for her?Your Answer: An OCP containing ethinyl oestradiol and norgestrel.
Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.
Explanation:OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.
When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:
Your Answer: Day 21 oestrogen level is elevated
Correct Answer: Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea
Explanation:Ovulation in the menstrual cycle usually occurs over 4 days. There is an increase in basal body temperature at the time of ovulation due to the effect of progesterone.
A high Day 21 progesterone level indicates ovulation and the release of an egg.
Dysmenorrhea is described as painful menstruation. The symptoms start at the time of ovulation and persist till menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.
Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.
Explanation:There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.
Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.
Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the neonate?
Your Answer: IgM
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:Passive immunity to the neonate is provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG) since it can be transferred through the placenta from mother to the foetus.
IgA is transferred from mothers to offspring through breast milk.
IgM molecular structure is too big to be filtered through the placental vasculature to the foetus. IgM is the first Ig to be synthesised by the neonate -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 29-year-old lady taking oral contraceptives came to your clinic with her boyfriend. She got severe diarrhoea and vomiting after eating a hamburger at a local eatery while on the road. She has taken her pills as prescribed.
What is your contraception advice?Your Answer: Use condoms for 7 days and continue usual pills
Explanation:The CDC recommends that:
If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours Use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.All other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?
Your Answer: Internal Iliac
Explanation:The bladder is supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery, including the superior vesical artery, branches of the gluteal and obturator arteries and the inferior vesical artery in males and the vaginal and the uterine arteries in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory disease?
Your Answer: 2%
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract, which can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. About 15 percent of women with this infection may develop pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which poses risks of long term consequences: ectopic pregnancy, infertility and chronic pelvic pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Correct
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The following is a gram positive obligate anaerobe:
Your Answer: Clostridia
Explanation:Obligate anaerobes are a group of bacteria that cannot survive in an oxygen-rich environment. In the body, they are usually found on mucosal membranes such as that of the lower gastrointestinal system, or the vagina. Infection with these organisms is usually suprative and causes abscesses. Examples of gram-negative anaerobes include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium and Prevotella, while gram-positive anaerobes include Actinomyces and Clostridia. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are both gram-positive facultative anaerobes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion
Explanation:If the patient has a negative Chlamydia screen then a stat dose of metronidazole monotherapy is appropriate. You do not know this patients Chlamydia status and therefore dual therapy with metronidazole + doxycycline or azithromycin is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Uterine atony
Explanation:Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.
Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?
Your Answer: Conjoint tendon
Correct Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?
Your Answer: Ischial Spine
Explanation:The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.
All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Higher perinatal mortality
Correct Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel
Explanation:Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements best suits Androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Your Answer: They have normal female testosterone levels
Correct Answer: Gonadectomy must be performed after puberty because of the increased risk of malignancy
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome patients have 46XY chromosomes. They are males by genotype but appear as female because of insensitivity to male hormones. It is advisable to perform gonadectomy in these patients after puberty because these patients are at increased risk of developing malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 23
Correct
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We can detect the fetal heart beat by Sonography (transvaginal) at:
Your Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:The earliest fetal heart rate detected transvaginally was at 6 weeks 0 days of gestation compared with 7 weeks 0 days transabdominally. The transvaginal Doppler method was also more successful in detecting the fetal heart rate in women with a retroverted uterus (p < or = 0.01).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural areas.
What is the contraception method of choice for teenagers with high risk of unplanned pregnancy?Your Answer: None of the listed answers
Correct Answer: Intrauterine Contraceptive Device
Explanation:The use of long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) is globally accepted as a strategy that is successful in decreasing rates of unintended pregnancy, especially in very young women.
Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) are defined as any contraceptive that requires administration less than once per cycle (i.e. per month). This includes copper and progestogen-only intrauterine devices (IUDs), and progestogen subdermal implants and injections. However, subdermal implants and IUDs, which have a life of at least three years, have superior efficacy over injections, which require administration every three months. Implants and IUDs are highly cost-effective when compared with other contraceptive methods.LARCs are widely recommended by professional bodies and the World Health Organization (WHO) as first-line contraception for young women as they are safe, effective and reversible. Young women should be offered the choice of a LARC as part of a fully informed decision for their first form of contraception.
LARCs surpass barrier methods and contraceptive pills in effectiveness and safety therefore all other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography (CTG)?
Your Answer: Fetal hypoxia
Explanation:Repetitive late decelerations can be caused by fetal hypoxia which results in constriction of the vessels to circulate blood from the peripheries to more important organs of the body like the brain and heart etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.
On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.
Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?Your Answer: Ruptured uterus
Explanation:Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.
Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
– Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
– Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
– Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
– Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
– Cessation of uterine contractions
– Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
– Uterine tenderness
As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding placental anatomy:
Your Answer: The decidua capsularis forms part of the placenta
Correct Answer: Fetal blood vessels develop in the mesenchymal core of the chorionic villi
Explanation:The chorionic plate represents the fetal surface of the placenta, which in turn is covered by the amnion. The amnion is composed of a single layered epithelium and the amnionic mesenchyme, an avascular connective tissue. The amnionic mesenchyme is only weakly attached to the chorionic mesenchyme and can easily be removed from the delivered placenta. The chorionic mesenchyme contains the chorionic vessels that are continuous with the vessels of the umbilical cord. Within the mesoderm of secondary villi, haematopoietic progenitor cells develop and start to differentiate. At about day 20 post-conception, first placental blood cells and endothelial cells develop independent of the vascular system of the embryo proper.13 14 The development of first placental vessels transforms the respective villi into tertiary villi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A pregnant patient who is needle phobic has her nuchal translucency (NT) scan but refuses serum markers. You advise her the False Positive Rate of the scan is 5%. What would you advise the mother regarding the detection rate of Down Syndrome using NT alone?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:The nuchal lucency measurement is the measure of the nuchal pad thickness. Children with down syndrome have an increased thickness of the nuchal pad. The risk of down’s syndrome increases with maternal age. The nuchal lucency test has an accuracy rate of 70%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Correct
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With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: Interphase
Explanation:DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 30
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents for difficulty and pain in attempting sexual intercourse. She states that she never had such symptoms prior. The pain is not felt at the time of penetration, but appears to hurt deeper in the vagina.
She was recently pregnant with her first child and delivery was three months ago. She did not have an episiotomy or sustain any vaginal lacerations during delivery. She denies any vaginal bleeding since her lochia had stopped two months ago. She is still breastfeeding her child.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her dyspareunia?Your Answer: Atrophic vaginal epithelium.
Explanation:This is a patient that recently gave birth and is still breastfeeding presenting with dyspareunia. The most likely cause would be a thin atrophic vaginal epithelium. This is very common presentation and is due to the low oestrogen levels due to the prolactin elevation from breastfeeding.
An unrecognised and unsutured vaginal tear should have healed by this time and should not be causing issues.
Endometriosis tends to resolve during a pregnancy, but if this was the issue, it would have caused dyspareunia prior to pregnancy.
Vaginal infective causes of dyspareunia, such as monilial or trichomonal infections, are rare in amenorrhoeic women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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