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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer: Multiple system atrophy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with a combination of akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs and the suggestion of autonomic features. This is most indicative of a diagnosis of multiple system atrophy.

      Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is a rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by autonomic dysfunction, tremors, slow movement, muscle rigidity, and postural instability (collectively known as parkinsonism) and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly.
      Examination reveals an obese man who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      Investigations are as follows:
      Hb 13.4 g/dl (13.0-18.0)
      WCC 6 x 109/l (4-11)
      Platelets 210 x 109/l (150-400)
      Electrolytes Normal
      Fasting glucose 5.6 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)
      LFTs Normal
      T4 12.7 pmol/l (10-22)
      TSH 2.1 mU/l (0.4-5)
      Prolactin 259 mU/l (<450)
      Testosterone 6.6 nmol/l (9-30)
      LH 23.7 mU/l (4-8)
      FSH 18.1 mU/l (4-10)

      What is the next investigation needed for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the testes

      Explanation:

      The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
      Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
      His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
      So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      955.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

      Your Answer: NF-1

      Correct Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.

      A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
      Examples include:
      Gene Associated cancers
      p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
      APC Colorectal cancer
      BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
      BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
      NF1 Neurofibromatosis
      Rb Retinoblastoma
      WT1 Wilm’s tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most...

    Incorrect

    • A patient develops methemoglobinemia after being prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient?

      Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: NADH methaemoglobin reductase

      Explanation:

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old female patient with a history of atrial fibrillation was admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female patient with a history of atrial fibrillation was admitted with recurrent episodes of syncopal attacks. Her ECG showed torsade de pointes. What is the drug which does not cause the above presentation?

      Your Answer: Domperidone

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Drugs causing torsades de pointes are Amiodarone, Chlorpromazine, Clarithromycin, Disopyramide, Dofetilide, Erythromycin, Haloperidol, Methadone, Procainamide, Quinidine, Sotalol, Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Nilotinib, Ondansetron, Ranolazine, Sunitinib, Ziprasidone, Amitriptyline, Ciprofloxacin, Imipramine, Chlorthalidone, Dasatinib, Hydrochlorothiazide, Furosemide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most common cause for this problem in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral reflux is the condition when the urine flows backwards from the bladder into the kidneys, which is the most common cause of UTI in patients this age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below:
      pH - 7.28
      pCO2 - 3.5 kPa
      pO2 - 15.9 kPa
      Na+ - 139 mmol/L
      K+ - 4.5 mmol/L
      Bicarbonate - 11 mmol/L
      Chloride - 113 mmol/L
      Lactate - 13.6 mmol/L

      Keeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: 15 litres of high-flow oxygen via face mask

      Correct Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.
      The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire.
      Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).

      The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate.

      Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.

      Other options:
      – Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised.
      – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed.
      – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.

      Note:

      Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymes
      Clinical presentation:
      Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almonds
      Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
      Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

      Management:
      Supportive measures: 100% oxygen
      Definitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following features is the most characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: It rarely causes pulmonary disease

      Correct Answer: It may occur with chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus is usually positive for antinuclear and antihistone antibodies, typically without renal or neurologic involvement. However, pulmonary involvement is common. Drugs that can induce lupus include isoniazid, hydralazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, and other anticonvulsants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.

      Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.
      Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:
      Respiratory deficiency
      Acute alcohol dependence
      Head injury
      Treatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
      Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s disease
      Severe hepatic impairment
      The dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms.

      To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.

      It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given.
      It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.

    Investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years.

      Investigations reveal:
      Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110)
      Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)
      Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4)

      Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D

      Explanation:

      This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8%...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regimen.
      He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning.
      Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime

      Explanation:

      The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
      Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old male complains of a headache that gets worse when he moves...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male complains of a headache that gets worse when he moves his head forward. From the list of options, which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic Sinusitis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms such as pain worsening when bending forward, are consistent with chronic sinusitis. Sinusitis also does not present with nausea or vomiting, which is worsened by loud noises or bright lights.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5-15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After 6 months he presents in the infectious clinic with a second episode of meningitis. His past history is clear and he takes no regular medication. Which of the following is most probably deficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old obese woman presents to casualty. She has rigors and reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old obese woman presents to casualty. She has rigors and reports a fever. On examination there is jaundice and tenderness over the right upper quadrant of her abdomen.

      She has an elevated white blood cell count and a markedly raised alkaline phosphatase level; transaminases and bilirubin are also abnormal.

      Which of these diagnoses best fits the clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      This question describes Charcot’s triad– fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice, which is seen in ascending cholangitis. Reynold’s pentad is a worsened version of this, where you have RUQ pain, fever, jaundice, hypotension, and altered mental status. Risk factors for gallstones are the 4F’s- female, fat, forty, and fertile. You would not have the elevated bilirubin, ALP, transaminases with a kidney stone or in peptic ulcer disease. Hepatitis would not cause elevation of bilirubin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 71-year-old male got trapped under a cupboard for 4 hours which accidentally...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old male got trapped under a cupboard for 4 hours which accidentally fell on his leg while he was moving his house. Which enzyme activity would you measure in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatinine kinase

      Explanation:

      Creatine kinase (CK) is an enzyme found in the heart, brain, skeletal muscle, and other tissues. Increased amounts of CK are released into the blood when there is muscle damage. This test measures the amount of creatine kinase in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of fever, cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of fever, cough and chest pain for 3 days. The right lung base was dull on percussion and the breath sounds were reduced in intensity. Which of the following investigations is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s acute presentation of symptoms accompanied by lung abnormalities observed on physical examination, the next step is to visualize the suspected acute inflammatory process by ordering a CXR. Bronchoscopy, CT and MRI are done in cases in which there is suspicion of any tumour formation. V/Q scan is done in cases where pulmonary embolism is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 85-year-old elderly male presents with complaint of worsening breathlessness over the last...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old elderly male presents with complaint of worsening breathlessness over the last 2 years. He has a longstanding history of COPD and currently takes salbutamol, ipratropium, salmeterol, beclomethasone and theophylline. FEV1 comes out to be less than 30%. What will be the most suitable next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assessment for long term O2 therapy

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the cornerstone mode of treatment in patients with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) associated with resting hypoxaemia. When appropriately prescribed and correctly used, LTOT has clearly been shown to improve survival in hypoxemic COPD patients. Requirements to proceed to LTOT is the patient should be stable and on appropriate optimum therapy (as in given case) and having stopped smoking tobacco. The patient should be shown to have a PaO2 of less than 7.3 kPa and/or a PaCO2 of greater than 6 kPa on two occasions at least 3 weeks apart. FEV1 should be less than 1.5 litres, and there should be a less than 15% improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilators. Patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8 kPa who have polycythaemia, right heart failure or pulmonary hypertension may benefit from LTOT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.

      congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The drug of choice for delirium tremens will be? ...

    Incorrect

    • The drug of choice for delirium tremens will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      The drugs of choice for delirium tremens are benzodiazepines such as chlordiazepoxide, diazepam or lorazepam. Chlordiazepoxide is a long acting drug and is the preferred drug, before the other benzodiazepines. Barbiturates are the 2nd drugs of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction.

      His coagulation profile shows:
      Plts: 173 x 10^9/L
      PT: 12.9 secs
      APTT: 84 secs

      Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old woman has been complaining of tiredness over the past few weeks. She has angular stomatitis but no koilonychia. What is the most probable cell type to be seen in her blood film?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrocytes

      Explanation:

      This is a case of Vit. B12 or folic acid deficiency. The anaemia with angular stomatitis is highly suggestive of Vit. B12 or folate deficiency. The absence of koilonychia excludes Iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.

      Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.

      Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Adverse effects:
      Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
      Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
      As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
      Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.

      Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea and low exercise...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea and low exercise tolerance. He's known to have a history of ischemic heart disease on medication. Which drug most probably caused his presenting complaint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac Sodium

      Explanation:

      Diclofenac sodium is a non-selective reversible and competitive inhibitor of cyclooxygenase (COX), subsequently blocking the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin precursors. This leads to an inhibition of the formation of prostaglandins that are involved in pain, inflammation and fever. Clinical trials of several COX-2 selective and non-selective NSAIDs of up to three years duration have shown an increased risk of serious cardiovascular (CV) thrombotic events, including myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke, which can be fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice.

      Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities.

      Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - According to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma, which one of...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Ann Arbor staging system for Hodgkin lymphoma, which one of the following would be staged as IIIB?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodes on both sides of diaphragm with night sweats

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 62 year-old patient with a history of a stroke, presented with chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year-old patient with a history of a stroke, presented with chest pain and exertional dyspnoea. ECG revealed atrial fibrillation and on chest X-ray there was straightening of the left heart border. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic mitral valve stenosis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of exertional dyspnoea, atrial fibrillation and radiological evidence of straightening of the left heart border favours the diagnosis of rheumatoid mitral valve stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular System (0/1) 0%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal System (0/1) 0%
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