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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors?
Your Answer: Are intracellular receptors
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Adenosine receptors are expressed on the surface of most cells.
Four subtypes are known to exist which are A1, A2A, A2B and A3.Of these, the A1 and A2 receptors are present peripherally and centrally. There are agonists at the A1 receptors which are antinociceptive, which reduce the sensitivity to a painful stimuli for the individual. There are also agonists at the A2 receptors which are algogenic and activation of these results in pain.
The role of adenosine and other A1 receptor agonists is currently under investigation for use in acute and chronic pain states.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.
The following is a description of the clinical examination:
Anxious
Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
Cool peripheries
Pulse 120 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:
Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.
Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.
The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker
Explanation:For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.
There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.
Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Explanation:Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.
It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:
Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.
Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.
Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started.
What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20-25kg
Explanation:For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:
Weight = (age + 4) × 2
The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.
This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.
In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.
However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.
The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In which of the following situations will a regional fall in cerebral blood flow occur, suppose there is no changes in the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperoxia
Explanation:The response of cerebral blood flow (CBF) to hyperoxia (PaO2 >15 kPa, 113 mmHg), the cerebral oxygen vasoreactivity is less well defined. A study originally described, using a nitrous oxide washout technique, a reduction in CBF of 13% and a moderate increase in cerebrovascular resistance in subjects inhaling 85-100% oxygen. Subsequent human studies, using a variety of differing methods, have also shown CBF reductions with hyperoxia, although the reported extent of this change is variable. Another study assessed how supra-atmospheric pressures influenced CBF, as estimated by changes in middle cerebral artery flow velocity (MCAFV) in healthy individuals. Atmospheric pressure alone had no effect on MCAFV if PaO2 was kept constant. Increases in PaO2 did lead to a significant reduction in MCAFV; however, there were no further reductions in MCAFV when oxygen was increased from 100% at 1 atmosphere of pressure to 100% oxygen at 2 atmospheres of pressure. This suggests that the ability of cerebral vasculature to constrict in response to increasing partial pressure of oxygen is limited.
Increases in arterial blood CO2 tension (PaCO2) elicit marked cerebral vasodilation.
CBF increases with general anaesthesia, ketamine anaesthesia, and hypoviscosity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.
In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year old farmer is hospitalized with acute respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Suspected organophosphate poisoning.
Which one is the best mechanism for acute toxicity caused by organophosphates?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The toxicity of organophosphorus (OP) nerve agents is manifested through irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) at the cholinergic synapses, which stops nerve signal transmission, resulting in a cholinergic crisis and eventually death of the poisoned person. Oxime compounds used in nerve agent antidote regimen reactivate nerve agent-inhibited AChE and halt the development of this cholinergic crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres
Explanation:Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.
The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)
For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .
Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.
The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).
Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Energy
Explanation:The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
F = 1 kg·m/s2The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:
J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).
The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:
J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
J/s = kg·m2·s-3Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
Pa = kg·m-1·s-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve to the left?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myoglobin (Mb)
Explanation:Myoglobin is a haemoglobin-like, iron-containing pigment that is found in muscle fibres. It has a high affinity for oxygen and it consists of a single alpha polypeptide chain. It binds only one oxygen molecule, unlike haemoglobin, which binds 4 oxygen molecules.
The myoglobin ODC is a rectangular hyperbola. There is a very low P50 0.37 kPa (2.75 mmHg). This means that it needs a lower P50 to facilitate oxygen offloading from haemoglobin. It is low enough to be able to offload oxygen onto myoglobin where it is stored. Myoglobin releases its oxygen at the very low PO2 values found inside the mitochondria.
P50 is defined as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: It is the PO2 at which the haemoglobin becomes 50% saturated with oxygen. Normally, the P50 of adult haemoglobin is 3.47 kPa(26 mmHg).
Foetal haemoglobin has 2 ? and 2 ?chains. The ODC is left shifted – this means that P50 lies between 2.34-2.67 kPa [18-20 mmHg]) compared with the adult curve and it has a higher affinity for oxygen. Foetal haemoglobin has no ? chains so this means that there is less binding of 2.3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG).
Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity more than 200-fold higher than that of oxygen. This therefore decreases the amount of haemoglobin that is available for oxygen transport. Carbon monoxide binding also increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, which shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and thus impedes oxygen unloading in the tissues.
In sickle cell disease, (HbSS) has a P50 of 4.53 kPa(34 mmHg).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Pressure volume loop represents the compliance of left ventricle.
Considering there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, which physiological change may result an increase in left ventricular afterload?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased end-systolic volume
Explanation:If there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, there will be decrease in end-diastolic volume and stroke volume. So there must be increase in end-systolic volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein binding
Explanation:When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to ?1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.
The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.
Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.
The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CYP2D6
Explanation:Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.
As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).
The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.
Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.
All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.
The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.
The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.
The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).
An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.
Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.
The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.
Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding bilirubin, which one of the following statement is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjugated bilirubin is stored in the gall bladder
Explanation:Bilirubin is the tetrapyrrole and a catabolic product of heme. 70-90% of bilirubin is end product of haemoglobin degradation in the liver.
Bilirubin circulates in the blood in 2 forms; unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin.
Unconjugated bilirubin is insoluble in water. It travels through the bloodstream to the liver, where it changes from insoluble into a soluble form (i.e.; unconjugated into conjugated form).
This conjugated bilirubin travels from the liver into the small intestine and the gut bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen and then into urobilin (not urobilin to urobilinogen). A very small amount passes into the kidneys and is excreted in urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.
Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium cations
Explanation:The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.
2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity
313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5
Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.
The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.
The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.
The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:
OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity
Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Given the following values:
Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
PEEP = 10 cmH2O
Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.
If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease
Explanation:A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.
FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:
RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed
Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.
The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0
The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:
Fats RQ = 0.7
The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.Protein RQ = 0.8
Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction.
Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red blood cells
Explanation:The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin 200 200
Interstitial space 25 160Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.
FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
PV-plasma volume (3L)
TG-total globular volume (5L)
Hb-haemoglobin concentration
SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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