00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss. Which of the following will be the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Buccal prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history of intermittent attacks suggests Meniere’s disease. Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that can lead to dizzy spells (vertigo) and hearing loss. In most cases, Meniere’s disease affects only one ear. Prochlorperazine can be used for complaints of nausea, vomiting and vertigo associated with Meniere’s disease. It is available as a tablet, injection and buccal preparation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old female with chronic pelvic pain, was recently diagnosed with PID. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female with chronic pelvic pain, was recently diagnosed with PID. She was prescribed doxycycline. After 2 days she returned with complaints of abdominal bloating, nausea and regurgitation. Which of the following advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: Take Doxycycline after meals

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline is known to cause dyspeptic symptoms. So advising to take Doxycycline after meals is important. Taking with meals or adding an antacid is not advised, as both will cause reduction in drug absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presented with polyuria and orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following medications is the most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide is known to cause photosensitive rash as part of an allergic reaction during which the person might also have wheezing, chest tightness or dyspnoea. The rash typically occurs on the areas of body exposed to the sun, like the back, hands, arms and legs.
      Comparatively, digoxin produces a rash that comprises of nearly the whole body.
      Atenolol may also cause skin rash but that is not photosensitive.
      Clopidogrel might produce an non-photosensitive urticarial rash.
      Ezetimibe causes a severe allergic reaction but only rarely. This rash is also non-photosensitive and is in the form of blisters, associated with itching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows:
      Na+ 122 mmol/l
      K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 69 umol/l

      During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female patient presents with butterfly rash, haematuria and photosensitivity. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents with butterfly rash, haematuria and photosensitivity. She is currently on TB treatment. Which antibody would you expect positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-Ds DNA

      Correct Answer: Anti-Histone

      Explanation:

      This patient is probably suffering from a drug-induced lupus. There’s a 95% chance that anti-histone antibodies are positive. Drug-induced lupus is a lupus-like disease caused by certain prescription drugs. The drugs most commonly connected with drug-induced lupus are: hydralazine (used to treat high blood pressure or hypertension), procainamide (used to treat irregular heart rhythms) and isoniazid (used to treat tuberculosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient is brought into the emergency department with a 5 day history of altered personality, and visual and auditory hallucinations. On palpation of the abdomen, a mass is felt in the left iliac fossa. Ultrasound of the abdomen suggests a left ovarian tumour. Her basic observations are as follows:


      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      Heart rate 98 beats/minute
      Respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute
      Temperature 37.9 °C

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rabies

      Correct Answer: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

      Explanation:

      The case presents with an underlying ovarian tumour, associated with psychiatric symptoms; thus, an organic illness must first be ruled out before considering the other conditions listed which often present with psychiatric features without an underlying organic disease. Among the listed conditions Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is the only condition that presents with psychiatric features including agitation, hallucinations, delusions and disordered thinking that is associated with tumours 50% of the time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the site of action of antidiuretic hormone?

      Your Answer: Ascending loop of Henle

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, also called antidiuretic hormone (ADH), regulates the tonicity of body fluids. It is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.. An incidental consequence of this renal reabsorption of water is concentrated urine and reduced urine volume. In high concentrations may also raise blood pressure by inducing moderate vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old male patient with atrial fibrillation, who was on warfarin came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient with atrial fibrillation, who was on warfarin came to the clinic with an INR report of 7. Upon questioning it was revealed that he had been started on another drug recently, which was the reason for the prolonged INR. Which of the following drugs cause this?

      Your Answer: Carbemazepine

      Correct Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      Cimetidine inhibits hepatic microsomal activity, which may cause reduced metabolic clearance of warfarin and augments its anticoagulant effect. Pravastatin doesn’t affect the warfarin metabolism. Other drugs are enzyme inducers which will increase warfarin clearance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which feature is NOT characteristic of carcinoid syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which feature is NOT characteristic of carcinoid syndrome?

      Your Answer: Persistent hypotension

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome comprising of signs and symptoms that occur secondary to carcinoid tumours. Diarrhoea, dermatitis, bronchospasm and right sided cardiac valve lesions (tricuspid insufficiency and pulmonary stenosis) are characteristic of carcinoid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old patient. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Reduced tear formation

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      The dendritic ulceration seen on fluorescein staining of the eye is pathopneumonic for keratitis caused by HSV (herpes simplex virus). Presentation is that of blepharoconjunctivitis. Treatment is required, the treatment is typically topical acyclovir. Topical steroids can make the infection worse. The other answer choices would not have this dendritic pattern seen on fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days.
      On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disoriented. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg.
      Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal:
      FBC: Normal
      U&E: Normal
      Plasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6)
      Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. 
      Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.
      Treatment:
      – The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam.
      – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.
      – Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      – It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a non ST...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a non ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) was diagnosed. He was treated with aspirin 300 mg and 2 puffs of Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray. According to NICE guidelines, which of the following categories of patients should receive clopidogrel?

      Your Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), a beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.

      What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.
      Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:
      Short stature
      Stocky habitus
      Obesity
      Developmental delay
      Round face
      Dental hypoplasia
      Brachymetacarpals
      Brachymetatarsals
      Soft tissue calcification/ossification
      The goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.
      The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with known allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis presents to the A&E Department with an exacerbation. Which therapy represents the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Oral itraconazole

      Correct Answer: Oral glucocorticoids

      Explanation:

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

      Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
      of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

      The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver.

      Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old woman with contralateral hemisensory loss presents with severe burning pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with contralateral hemisensory loss presents with severe burning pain in this area. In which of the following areas has arterial occlusion most probably occurred?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Thalamogeniculate artery

      Explanation:

      The woman’s clinical evolution suggests that there was a thalamic stroke in the contralateral hemisphere. The artery most likely affected is the thalamogeniculate artery. Sensory loss is usually unilateral and presents at the opposite side of the brain lesion. This kind of stroke can result in severe burning pain which is responsive to tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old male has suffered a stroke - he is unable to walk...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male has suffered a stroke - he is unable to walk in a straight line and has slurred speech. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate investigation to proceed with.

      Your Answer: CT scan brain

      Explanation:

      CT scans are used to produce images of the brain. It can be used to detect a stroke from a blood clot or bleeding within the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?

      Your Answer: It is a cholinesterase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:
      When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
      Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

      Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. She was given lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate way of determining the successful eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Urea breath test is the most sensitive test to determine if there has been RESOLUTION/ERADICATION of the infection with H. pylori. The best test for initial diagnosis would be EGD with biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 48-year-old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few hours ago, blisters appeared on his trunk. His past history revealed nothing serious and he's not on any medication. He admits that he went to Italy five months ago on vacation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chicken pox in adults may manifest with acute encephalitis, causing the confusional syndrome known as delirium. Blisters on the trunk favour the diagnosis. The trip to Italy however seems unimportant since the incubation period of chicken pox is 10 to 21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of polyuria and nocturia. BMI is noted to be 33 and urine culture is negative for nitrates. Which of the following investigations would be done next in order to establish a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood sugar

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from diabetes mellitus. Diagnosis of DM involves checking for elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old gentleman sustained an injury to his arm after falling on outstretched...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old gentleman sustained an injury to his arm after falling on outstretched hands. An X-ray confirms the fracture of the distal radius with backward shift of the distal fragment. The name given to this kind of deformity is?

      Your Answer: Dinner fork deformity

      Explanation:

      Dinner fork deformity is the name given to the fracture of distal radius, in which the distal fragment is dorsally angulated, displaced and sometimes impacted. Coxa vara is the hip deformity when angle between the head and shaft of the femur is reduced to more than 120 degree. A garden fork deformity is a reversed Colles fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms.

      Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?

      Your Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.

      In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.

      The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
      1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
      2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
      3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
      4. Nocturnal pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe central chest...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female with a history of hypertension presented with severe central chest pain for the past one hour, associated with sweating and vomiting. Her ECG showed ST elevation myocardial infarction, evident in leads V2-V4. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor

      Explanation:

      Diabetes is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma. Screening has been shown to be effective. Bevacizumab is not used for advanced cases. The incidence is higher in men. Alcohol is not the most common underlying cause worldwide; this is from cirrhosis from diseases like hepatitis B and C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency with acute onset breathlessness. He underwent...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency with acute onset breathlessness. He underwent a total hip replacement 7 days back. On examination, the JVP is raised. Which other investigation would be most helpful in leading to an accurate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CTPA

      Explanation:

      The most pertinent diagnosis suspected in this case would be a pulmonary embolism considering the recent surgical history and acute onset of breathlessness. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is a medical diagnostic test that employs computed tomography (CT) angiography to obtain an image of the pulmonary arteries. Its main use is to diagnose pulmonary embolism (PE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      14.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (5/6) 83%
Emergency & Critical Care (3/3) 100%
Nervous System (2/3) 67%
The Skin (1/1) 100%
Renal System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (2/3) 67%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular System (2/2) 100%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary System (1/1) 100%
Passmed