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  • Question 1 - At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series of membrane compartments known as:

      Your Answer: Mitochondrion

      Correct Answer: Tubulovesicles

      Explanation:

      The gastric H, K-ATPase pump, which pumps gastric acid (HCl), in the resting state is found in cytoplasmic tubular membranes. In the stimulated state this pump moves from the tubulovesicles to the apical membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      53.9
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?

      Your Answer: Plasmin

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      52.8
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding skeletal muscle is true?

      Your Answer: Actin is the major constituent of the thick filament

      Correct Answer: Myosin is the major constituent of the thick filament

      Explanation:

      Myosin is the major constituent of the thick filament. Actin is the major constituent of the THIN filament. Thin filaments consist of actin, tropomyosin and troponin in the ratio 7:1:1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      16369.6
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Direct conduction from the atrium to the ventricles is prevented by:

      Your Answer: P cells

      Correct Answer: Annulus fibrosus

      Explanation:

      The annulus fibrosus disconnects the syncytium complex. The atria are rapidly activated however the activation peters out when the insulating layer-the annulus fibrosus-is reached.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of the following is first to rise following myocardial infarction? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is first to rise following myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin, is a sensitive indicator of muscle injury and is first to rise following MI within two hours but is nonspecific.Troponin and CK-MB both begin to rise approximately three hours after MI. The cardiac troponins T and I which are released within 4–6 hours of an attack of MI and remain elevated for up to 2 weeks, have nearly complete tissue specificity and are now the preferred markers for assessing myocardial damage.Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) begins to rise approximately 12 hours after MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      26.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?

      Your Answer: 20 ml oxygen/100 ml blood

      Explanation:

      Normally, 100 ml of blood contains 15g haemoglobin and a single gram of haemoglobin can bind to 1.34 ml oxygen when 100% saturated. Thus, 15 × 1.34 = 20 ml O2/100 ml blood. The haemoglobin in venous blood that is leaving the tissues is about 75% saturated with oxygen, and hence it carries about 15 ml O2/100 ml venous blood. This implies that for each 10 ml of blood, 5 ml oxygen is transported to the tissues. With a p(O2) > 100 mm Hg, only 3 ml of oxygen is dissolved in every one litre of plasma. By increasing the pA(O2) by breathing 100% oxygen, one can add an extra amount of oxygen in the plasma, but the amount of oxygen carried by haemoglobin will not increase significantly as it is already > 95% saturated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into...

    Correct

    • Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into an amino acid sequence?

      Your Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide. This is known as translation and follows after the process transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      626.2
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication?

      Your Answer: Ornithine transcarbamylase

      Explanation:

      Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency also known as OTC deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder in humans. Ornithine transcarbamylase, the defective enzyme in this disorder is the final enzyme in the proximal portion of the urea cycle, responsible for converting carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine into citrulline. OTC deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, meaning males are more commonly affected than females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      119.3
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the cardiac muscle striations as viewed under the microscope, which areas are dark?

      Your Answer: I band and a band

      Correct Answer: A band and z line

      Explanation:

      Dark bands: a, h. Dark line: z. Clear band: i, m

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.2
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which of the following is untrue about mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is untrue about mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other disease attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects

      Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      All are true except for B. Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Temazepam

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Physiology
      3968.2
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which enzyme is deficient in the inborn error of metabolism called galactosemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme is deficient in the inborn error of metabolism called galactosemia?

      Your Answer: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Galactosaemia is a rare genetic autosomal recessive metabolic disorder. Lactose is broken down by the enzyme lactase into glucose and galactose. In individuals with galactosemia, the enzymes needed for further metabolism of galactose (Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase) are severely diminished or missing entirely, leading to toxic levels of galactose 1-phosphate in various tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      21.2
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.1

      Correct Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      6.3
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Where is retinol mainly stored? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is retinol mainly stored?

      Your Answer: Terminal ileum

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Vitamin A is a group of unsaturated nutritional organic compounds that includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, and several provitamin A carotenoids (most notably beta-carotene). The liver stores a multitude of substances, including glucose (in the form of glycogen), vitamin A (1–2 years’ supply), vitamin D (1–4 months’ supply), vitamin B12 (3–5 years’ supply), vitamin K, iron, and copper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      10.8
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following causes an increase in venous return? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?

      Your Answer: Peripheral vasodilatation

      Correct Answer: An increase in the normal negative intra-thoracic pressure

      Explanation:

      An increase in the normal negative intra-thoracic pressure occurs in inspiration e.g. Kussmaul sign is an inspiratory distention of the jugular veins caused by the inability of the right atrium, encased in its rigid pericardium during constrictive pericarditis, to accommodate the increase in venous return that occurs with inspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.2
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - With regards to the cell cycle, which phase represents period of cell growth...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the cell cycle, which phase represents period of cell growth that divides the end of DNA synthesis and the beginning of somatic cell division?

      Your Answer: Metaphase

      Correct Answer: Gap 2

      Explanation:

      Interphase is divided into three phases: G1 (first gap), S (synthesis), and G2 (second gap). During all three parts of interphase, the cell grows by producing proteins and cytoplasmic organelles. However, chromosomes are replicated only during the S phase. Thus, a cell grows (G1), continues to grow as it duplicates its chromosomes (S), grows more and prepares for mitosis (G2), and finally divides (M) before restarting the cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      103.3
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      10
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV...

    Incorrect

    • Although variable, branches of which artery most often supply the SA and AV nodes?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The RCA (right coronary artery) supplies the SA and the AV nodes along with the postero-basal wall of the left ventricle, posterior one third of the inferior vena cava, right ventricle and the posteromedial papillary muscle in the left ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      17.1
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding homeostasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding homeostasis?

      Your Answer: The set point is a fixed value which homeostasis must maintain.

      Correct Answer: In negative feedback mechanisms, effectors always act to move the variable in the opposite direction to the change that was originally detected.

      Explanation:

      The vast majority of systems within the body work by negative feedback mechanisms. This negative feedback refers to the way that effectors act to move the variable in the opposite direction to the change that was originally detected. Because there is an inherent time delay between detecting a change in a variable and effecting a response, the negative feedback mechanisms cause oscillations in the variable they control. There is a narrow range of values within which a normal physiological function occurs and this is called the ‘set point’. The release of oxytocin in childbirth is an example of positive feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      8.3
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Phosphate absorption in the proximal tubules is via which transporting molecule? ...

    Correct

    • Phosphate absorption in the proximal tubules is via which transporting molecule?

      Your Answer: Na/Pi co transporter

      Explanation:

      Sodium/phosphate cotransporters are located in the renal proximal tubular brush border, and are the key elements in proximal tubular phosphate reabsorption and phosphate homeostasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      10.6
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules?

      Your Answer: Vimentin only

      Correct Answer: Kinesin and dynein

      Explanation:

      The major motor proteins that interact with microtubules are kinesin, which usually moves toward the (+) end of the microtubule, and dynein, which moves toward the (−) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Takes place in the endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      29.5
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport....

    Correct

    • The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport. Which of the following statements about active transport is correct?

      Your Answer: Active transport occurs in glucose absorption from the gut

      Explanation:

      The movement of a material against a concentration gradient, i.e. from a low to a high concentration, is known as active transport. Primary active transport is defined as active transport that involves the use of chemical energy, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Secondary active transport occurs when an electrochemical gradient is used. The sodium-potassium pump, calcium ATPase pump, and proton pump are all key active transport systems that use ATP. An electrochemical gradient is used by the sodium-calcium co-transporter, which is an example of secondary active transport. The sodium-dependent hexose transporter SGLUT-1 transports glucose and galactose into enterocytes. Secondary active transport is exemplified here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      9.8
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this...

    Incorrect

    • A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this patient, which of the following volumes for functional residual capacity is considered a normal result?

      Your Answer: 0.5 L

      Correct Answer: 2.0 L

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume. In a 70 kg, average-sized male, a normal functional residual capacity is approximately 2100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      27.8
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed...

    Incorrect

    • The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:

      Your Answer: Oxidative phosphorylation

      Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      11.2
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion?

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Number of hormones and neurotransmitters can stimulate and inhibit pancreatic exocrine secretion. Cholecystokinin, secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide and substance P stimulate pancreatic secretion. Pancreatic polypeptide, somatostatin inhibit pancreatic secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true? ...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?

      Your Answer: P53 plays a role in programmed cell death

      Correct Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein

      Explanation:

      P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Physiology
      27.4
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Where is the major site of purine synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the major site of purine synthesis?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The major site of purine synthesis is in the liver. Purines are biologically synthesized as nucleotides and in particular as ribotides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      12191.9
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

      Your Answer: A, E, B, K

      Correct Answer: A, D, E, K

      Explanation:

      Vitamins are classified as either fat soluble (vitamins A, D, E and K) or water soluble (vitamins B and C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      23.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/10) 10%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Cell Biology (0/2) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
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