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  • Question 1 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Correct

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      56.5
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Incorrect

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Lower part of the vagina

      Correct Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      75.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time? ...

    Correct

    • What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      32.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly...

    Correct

    • A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly sutured in the emergency department. Which of the following factors will aid in the wound healing process?

      Your Answer: Presence of sutures

      Explanation:

      Foreign bodies including sutures will delay wound healing, however due to the net affect being helpful they are used. Secondary wound infection will delay healing and is a potential post op complication. Corticosteroids depresses the wound healing ability of the body. Poor nutrition will also delay healing leading to decreased albumin, vit D and vit C. Diabetic patients with atherosclerosis with poor perfusion of tissues have notoriously delayed/poor healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      15.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid...

    Correct

    • The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      29.2
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?

      Your Answer: Salpingopharyngeus

      Correct Answer: Tensor veli palatini

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      44.7
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like...

    Correct

    • A 38-year old woman presents to the clinic with a 2 cm eczema-like lesion on the areolar region of her left breast, for 5 months. Biopsy of the lesion showed large cells at the dermal-epidermal junction with positive staining for mucin. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast or nipple resembles eczema in appearance with an underlying carcinoma typically. The disease is usually unilateral and presents with inflammation, oozing and crusting along with a non-healing ulcer. Treatment is often delayed due to the innocuous appearance but can be fatal. It results due to spread of neoplastic cells from the ducts of the mammary gland to the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      28.6
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      55.3
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the mechanism of action of fluconazole?

      Your Answer: Inhibits cytochrome P450

      Explanation:

      Fluconazole is a triazole antifungal drug used in the treatment and prevention of superficial and systemic fungal infections. Like other imidazole- and triazole-class antifungals, fluconazole inhibits the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme, 14-demethylase. It is used to treat candidiasis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, dermatophytosis, and pityriasis versicolor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A diabetic 58-year-old man, after the injection of radiographic contrast, has a decreased...

    Correct

    • A diabetic 58-year-old man, after the injection of radiographic contrast, has a decreased urine output and decreased level of consciousness. Which of the following conditions has he most likely developed

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) involves damage to the tubule cells of the kidneys and is the most common cause of acute kidney injury. ATN in the majority of the cases is caused by ischaemia of the kidneys due to lack of perfusion and oxygenation but it may also occur due to poison or harmful substance. Contrast used for radiology may cause ATN in patients with several risk factors e.g. diabetic nephropathy. Symptoms may include oliguria, nausea, fluid retention, fatigue and decreased consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      32
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Correct

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      35.7
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The adductors of the fingers are the palmer interossei. They are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which is a branch of the medical cord of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.6
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Incorrect

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer: Lateral thoracic

      Correct Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      95.3
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      44.1
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old...

    Correct

    • During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:

      Your Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      13.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Calculate the cardiac output in an adult male with the following parameters:

    Heart...

    Correct

    • Calculate the cardiac output in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 6.25 l/min

      Explanation:

      As per Fick’s principle, VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24 – 0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      157.7
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left bronchial artery – left apical segmental artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      102.8
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2...

    Correct

    • A young male was diagnosed with hepatitis A, which clinically resolved in 2 weeks. What will his liver biopsy done after 6 months show?

      Your Answer: Normal architecture

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is the most common acute viral hepatitis, more common in children and young adults. It is caused by Hepatitis A virus, which is a single-stranded RNA picornavirus. The primary route of spread of Hepatitis A is the faecal-oral route. Consumption of contaminated raw shellfish is also a likely causative factor. The shedding of the virus in faecal matter occurs before the onset of symptoms and continues a few days after. Hepatitis A does not lead to chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, and there is no known chronic carrier state. Hence, a biopsy performed after recovery will show normal hepatocellular architecture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      12.1
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where? ...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.

      The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)

      The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):

      G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone

      F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids

      R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.

      Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      7.4
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP is 72/30 mmhg, heart rate of 142 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood and his BP returned to 100/70 and his heart rate slowed to 90 beats/min. What decreased after transfusion?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood, this fluid resuscitation will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling which will result in the decreases TPR with an increased CO and cardiac filling pressures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      40.7
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of recent-onset of itching and fatigue. On examination, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was found to be high. Barium radiography of the biliary tract showed a 'beaded' appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterised by patchy inflammation, fibrosis and strictures in intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts. It is a chronic cholestatic condition with 80% patients having associated inflammatory bowel disease (likely to be ulcerative colitis). Symptoms include pruritus and fatigue. ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) or MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) are diagnostic. Disease can lead to complete obliteration of ducts, which can result in liver failure. Cholangiocarcinoma is also a recognised complication..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      20.6
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of...

    Correct

    • Staphylococcus aureus can be identified in the laboratory based on the clotting of plasma. Which microbial product is responsible for this activity?

      Your Answer: Coagulase

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most pathogenic species and is implicated in a variety of infections.  S. aureus can be identified due to its production of coagulase. The staphylococcal enzyme coagulase will cause inoculated citrated rabbit plasma to gel or coagulate. The coagulase converts soluble fibrinogen in the plasma into insoluble fibrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      25
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The thoracic duct : ...

    Correct

    • The thoracic duct :

      Your Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      49.6
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the infratemporal fossa

      Correct Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      17.2
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Lung compliance is increased by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Lung compliance is increased by:

      Your Answer: Atelectasis

      Correct Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Lung compliance is increased by emphysema, acute asthma and increasing age and decreased by alveolar oedema, pulmonary hypertension, atelectasis and pulmonary fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      44.3
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      34.3
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?

      Your Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      30.2
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles attaches to the pterygomandibular raphe?

      Your Answer: Lateral pterygoid muscle

      Correct Answer: Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

      Explanation:

      The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) provides attachment on its posterior border to the superior pharyngeal constrictor and on its anterior border to the buccinator muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      21.7
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th hospital stay developed pneumonia. The most likely organism that causes hospital acquired pneumonia is pseudomonas aeruginosa. What is the most likely mechanism for the pathogenesis on pseudomonas infection?

      Your Answer: Activation of cAMP

      Correct Answer: Exotoxin

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that can cause disease in plants and animals, including humans. It is citrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. P. aeruginosa uses the virulence factor exotoxin A to inactivate eukaryotic elongation factor 2 via ADP-ribosylation in the host cell, much the same as the diphtheria toxin does. Without elongation factor 2, eukaryotic cells cannot synthesize proteins and necrotise. The release of intracellular contents induces an immunologic response in immunocompetent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      21.6
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/12) 42%
Head & Neck (1/4) 25%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
General (1/1) 100%
Physiology (5/6) 83%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Pathology (9/11) 82%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Thorax (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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