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Question 1
Incorrect
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A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mumps
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes macrocephaly?
Your Answer: Poorly controlled gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder?
Your Answer: DAX-1 mutation
Correct Answer: XXX (Triple X Syndrome)
Explanation:The correct answer is triple X syndrome with a genotype of XXX and an almost normal female phenotype. The extra X chromosome is inactive. The final phenotype of an individual is determined after normal sexual and gonadal differentiation, a process that involves several genes located on chromosomes X and Y. Disorders of sexual differentiation result in cases of ambiguous genitalia and are caused by a number of genetic abnormalities. Among these disorders is the turner syndrome with a genotype of 45X0, characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and ovarian failure. DAX-1 gene mutation leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which results in virilization of female external genitalia. Campomelic dysplasia results from mutation of the SOX-9 gene, leading to 46XY sex reversal. Danys-Drash syndrome is characterized by disordered sexual development in affected males due to the mutated WT-1 gene, which also causes Wilm’s tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Frontal bossing
Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?
Your Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium
Explanation:In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Correct Answer: Ganciclovir
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 8 year old boy who had not wet his bed for the past 3 and half years, presented with bed wetting for 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Investigate for secondary causes
Explanation:As this boy was dry for a considerable period, there is a high chance of a secondary cause for the bed wetting, such as bladder infections, constipation, diabetes, psychological stress and hormonal problems etc. These have to be excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vascular malformation
Correct Answer: External angular dermoid
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?
Your Answer: Circumcision
Correct Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration
Explanation:The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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Erythema infectiosum is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer: Herpes virus serology
Explanation:Erythema infectiosum is an acute viral illness caused by Parvovirus B19. It is usually a mild flu-like illness and produces a maculopapular rash, appearing initially on the cheeks and then spreading towards extremities. The rash usually spares the palms and soles and gives a slapped appearance to the cheeks. It can be described as having a fishnet appearance on the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In a mother who has taken selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI's) after 20 weeks gestation, which of the following may be an associated adverse condition in the neonate?
Your Answer: Floppy baby syndrome
Correct Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Treatment of depression is an important component of maternal and neonatal health. The use of SSRIs and antidepressants in the first trimester are unlikely to carry any congenital risks. However the use of the antidepressants closer to delivery may result in some respiratory, motor, gastrointestinal and central nervous system problems, with the most concerning of these being persistent pulmonary hypertension of the new-born. Other conditions such as cleft palate, jaundice, neural tube defects or floppy baby syndrome have not been shown to occur with SSRI use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?
Your Answer: Lactoferrin
Correct Answer: Interleukin-1
Explanation:Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of eczematoid rash over the cheeks and flexural regions of his body. Which one of the following statement best suit this condition?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% ointment should be applied sparingly to areas of active eczema
Explanation:Atopic dermatitis is an allergic condition which is more apparent in those children who have a positive family history in their 1st or 2nd degree relatives. In some cases, there might be a positive history of bronchial asthma. The best treatment option in this case would be topical application of 1% hydrocortisone ointment to the affected areas of the child. We cannot prescribe a strong ointment to the face because it may lead to skin atrophy, telangiectasia and other steroid related topical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire whether to have an interval appendicectomy to prevent the chances of having appendicitis again. What percentage of patients with conservatively managed appendix mass are likely to develop recurrent appendicitis?
Your Answer: 40-60%
Correct Answer: 0-20%
Explanation:The chance of having appendicitis again after appendix mass is around 17% in children. While the traditional teachings by Hamilton Bailey recommend following the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen followed by an interval appendicectomy six weeks after the discharge of the patient, there remains a looming controversy whether to perform an interval appendicectomy or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?
Your Answer: A 2 year old boy with heart rate of 140
Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60
Explanation:Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign?
Your Answer: Dermal melanosis
Correct Answer: Midline lumbosacral lipoma
Explanation:A lumbosacral lipoma is a form of congenital spinal lipoma and can be regarded as a cutaneous marker of dysraphism. It is not a skin condition but rather represents a defect in the process of neurulation and leads to a constellation of other abnormalities. The most common other systemic abnormalities associated with midline lumbosacral lipoma include complex anorectal and urological malformations. Other mentioned conditions are benign rashes or birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 20
Correct
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An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?
Your Answer: Navicular
Correct Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal
Explanation:The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome
Explanation:The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
Your Answer: She has polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.Note:Hypertrichosis occurs in 5–12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities. Other options:- Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome. – A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus. – Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2–4 weeks of starting the drug. – Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related changes?
Your Answer: Transverse white lines to the nails
Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder which is characterized by distorted self-image leading to abnormally decreased calorie intake. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the skin, GI, and endocrine system. Due to extreme weight loss, patients with anorexia nervosa develop cold intolerance along with bluish discoloration of their fingers, nose, and ears, which is known as acrocyanosis. This phenomenon may be due to the shunting of the blood from the peripheries to the central body systems as a reaction to hypothermia. Other notable changes in the integumentary system include extreme dryness (xerosis), lanugo hairs, decubitus ulcers, and easy bruisibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Sleep alarms
Explanation:As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is being observed for foetal distress. She has a displaced apex beat and decreased air entry on the left side of her chest. A scaphoid abdomen is seen on abdominal examination but all else is unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Correct Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic herniaCongenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs when the diaphragm muscle — the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen — fails to close during prenatal development, and the contents from the abdomen (stomach, intestines and/or liver) migrate into the chest through this hole.Examination in infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernias include the following findings:Scaphoid abdomenBarrel-shaped chestRespiratory distress (retractions, cyanosis, grunting respirations)In left-sided posterolateral hernia: Poor air entry on the left, with a shift of cardiac sounds over the right chest| in patients with severe defects, signs of pneumothorax (poor air entry, poor perfusion) may also be foundAssociated anomalies: Dysmorphisms such as craniofacial abnormalities, extremity abnormalities, or spinal dysraphism may suggest syndromic congenital diaphragmatic herniaIleal atresia is a congenital abnormality where there is significant stenosis or complete absence of a portion of the ileum. There is an increased incidence in those with chromosomal abnormalities. Ileal atresia results from a vascular accident in utero that leads to decreased intestinal perfusion and subsequent ischemia a segment of bowel. This leads to narrowing, or in the most severe cases, complete obliteration of the intestinal lumen. In the postnatal period, an abdominal radiograph will show air in the dilated loops of proximal bowel. An ileal atresia is often discovered prenatally at a routine prenatal ultrasound scan or following the development of polyhydramnios. On ultrasound, there is frequently a proximal dilated intestinal segment.Meconium Ileus (MI) is a condition where the content of the baby’s bowel (meconium) is extremely sticky and causes the bowel to be blocked at birth. In most cases the bowel itself is complete and intact but it is just the inside that is blocked.In some cases there has been a twist of the bowel before birth, which has caused the bowel to be blind ending (an atresia). Most babies with meconium ileus (90%) have Cystic Fibrosis (CF) and it is this that has caused the sticky meconium. Meconium ileus is a rare condition affecting only 1 in 25,000 babies. There is normally a delay in your baby passing meconium (black sticky stool normally passed within 24 hours of delivery) and your baby may also be reluctant to feed and may vomit a green fluid called bile which would normally pass through the bowel.Your baby may be uncomfortable because of constipation and trapped air in the bowel and the abdomen (tummy) will become distended. Some babies present at delivery with a distended abdomen and may be unwell due to infection around the bowel.Pyloric stenosis is a problem that affects babies between birth and 6 months of age and causes forceful vomiting that can lead to dehydration. It is the second most common problem requiring surgery in new-borns. The lower portion of the stomach that connects to the small intestine is known as the pylorus. In pyloric stenosis, the muscles in this part of the stomach enlarge, narrowing the opening of the pylorus and eventually preventing food from moving from the stomach to the intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring of the legs, presents with delayed walking. She was born by breech delivery. Clinical examination reveals absence of fever and no dysmorphism. Although the limbs look symmetrical and equal, the right leg seems to be shorter. The girl is otherwise healthy. Neurological examination reveals hypotonia with normal reflexes and power. The mother confirms there is no history of myelomeningocele, cerebral palsy, or birth asphyxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes disease
Correct Answer: Congenital dislocation of the hip
Explanation:In this particular case, the symptoms and signs are suggestive for congenital dislocation of the hip. There are several risk factors present including, a breech delivery, female gender (female:male = 6:1) and oligohydramnios. It is also more common in the left hip than the right.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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