00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman admitted to the hospital with her third urinary tract infection in as many months. She has type-2 diabetes and started Empagliflozin (a sodium glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor) 4 months ago. You suspect recurrent urinary tract infections secondary to her empagliflozin.
      Where is the main site of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Early proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Selective sodium-glucose transporter-2 (SGLT2) is expressed in the proximal renal tubules and is responsible for the majority of the reabsorption of filtered glucose from the tubular lumen.
      Empagliflozin; SGLT2 inhibitors reduce glucose reabsorption and lower the renal threshold for glucose, thereby increasing urinary glucose excretion, thus increasing the risk of urinary tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following features is more suggestive that this has resulted because of a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) rather than a ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

      Your Answer: QRS complex greater than 160 ms on ECG

      Correct Answer: Absence of QRS concordance in chest leads on ECG

      Explanation:

      To differentiate ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:

      Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
      QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
      QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
      AV dissociation for VT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 19-year-old lady with established anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old lady with established anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of 16. However, she gives the consent to be fed by a nasogastric tube. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypophosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Which of the above drugs is associated with peripheral neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Pyrazinamide

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy, which occurs due to deficiency of biologically active pyridoxine. The deficiency is caused by the combination of isoniazid and pyridoxine to form a hydrazone which is excreted in the urine. Pyridoxine supplementation reduces the risk associated with Isoniazid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old patient is referred to the tertiary neurology clinic because of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old patient is referred to the tertiary neurology clinic because of a possible diagnosis of Juvenile Parkinson's disease. His symptoms began predominantly with dystonia affecting the lower limbs, but he now has more classical signs of older onset Parkinson's including tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity.
      You map out his family tree and understand that his sister developed Parkinson's at the age of 16 but that his parents do not have signs of Parkinson's.
      Which of the following is the most likely mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Juvenile Onset Parkinson’s is an autosomal recessive condition that usually presents in late childhood to early adulthood, initially with gait disorders caused by lower limb dystonia that later develops to the more classical signs Parkinson’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During the peri-infarct period, which of these drug classes have been shown to...

    Incorrect

    • During the peri-infarct period, which of these drug classes have been shown to have the greatest favourable benefit?

      Your Answer: Statins

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Statins and ACE inhibitors are beneficial initially for the first 24 hours but not proven to have a benefit in the post infarct period. Statins have plaque stabilising functions when activated early following infarction. In contrast, when started immediately, beta blockers are the most beneficial. Nitrates have not been proven beneficial for survival and some calcium channel blockers actually increased the mortality rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8%...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regimen.
      He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning.
      Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Reduce his morning dose of mixed insulin

      Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime

      Explanation:

      The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
      Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old male was admitted for surgery 4 days ago. He suddenly became...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male was admitted for surgery 4 days ago. He suddenly became confused and aggressive. His attention span was reduced, and he became very restless. Which single option from the history best explains his condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribed medication

      Correct Answer: Alcohol consumption

      Explanation:

      Patient was dependent on alcohol. After 4 days of admission he developed signs of alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 22-year-old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old nulliparous female presents with shortness of breath. She has a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Complete blood count and clotting screen reveals the following results:
      Hb: 12.4 g/dl
      Plt: 137
      WBC: 7.5*109/l
      PT: 14 secs
      APTT: 46 secs
      Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      The combination of APTT and low platelets with recurrent DVTs make antiphospholipid syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A young woman with facial butterfly rash suffers from symmetrical joint pains in...

    Correct

    • A young woman with facial butterfly rash suffers from symmetrical joint pains in her knees and elbows. Moreover, she experiences morning stiffness and her ESR is raised. Which of the following would determine the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the question lead to suspicion of SLE because they fulfil three out of four criteria for a positive diagnosis. Anti-DNA antibodies have a diagnostic power for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), being a formal classification criterion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which complication of chronic renal failure is most likely associated with the accumulation...

    Incorrect

    • Which complication of chronic renal failure is most likely associated with the accumulation of aluminium?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Dialysis dementia

      Explanation:

      Dialysis dementia is a unique neurological syndrome associated with chronic dialysis. Aluminium toxicity is probably the major factor in the pathogenesis of the dementia, which is due to aluminium-containing compounds in the dialysis fluid. Patients with dialysis dementia present with progressive dementia, dysarthria and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Correct Answer: Procainamide

      Explanation:

      Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old girl suffers from a hereditary disease and presents at her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl suffers from a hereditary disease and presents at her GP with a renal colic. She claims that her mother had this problem too. What type of renal calculus is most likely responsible for the renal colic?

      Your Answer: Triple phosphate

      Correct Answer: Cystine

      Explanation:

      The patient seems to have inherited cystinuria which is an autosomal recessive disease. Typical for the disease is the abnormally high concentration of cysteine in the urine, finally causing cystinuria. In a person with cystinuria, the high concentrations of cysteine in the kidney results in the formation of stones with frequent colic pains and complications. If the genotype is partially expressed, then the phenotype might be even asymptomatic, thus the disease has a high variability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?

      Your Answer: pH = 7.32; pCO2 = 3.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.3 kPa

      Correct Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa

      Explanation:

      In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.

      The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).

      Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 61-year old mechanic recently attended A&E, with a 3 month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year old mechanic recently attended A&E, with a 3 month history of bilateral paresthesia and twitching affecting the thumb, first finger and lateral forearm. He denied any trauma. An MRI scan of his spine was performed and revealed cervical canal stenosis with mild cord compression. He was discharged and advised to see his GP for follow-up. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to physiology services and review in 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Refer to spinal surgery services

      Explanation:

      Bilateral median nerve dysfunction is suggestive of degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) rather than bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome. DCM should be suspected in elderly patients presenting with limb neurology. This patient’s twitches are probably fibrillations, a sign of lower motor neuron dysfunction.
      Degenerative cervical myelopathy is associated with a delay in diagnosis. It is most commonly misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome. In one study, 43% of patients who underwent surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy had been initially diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome.
      Management of these patients should be by specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery). Decompressive surgery is the mainstay of treatment and has been shown to stop disease progression. Physiotherapy and analgesia do not replace surgical opinion, though they may be used alongside. Nerve root injections do not have a role in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up to the umbilicus. Blood tests revealed the following results: Hb=8.7g/dl, Platelets=72 and WBC=100. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) can initially be asymptomatic but as the disease progresses, they appear to have elevated WBCs with anaemia and a lower than normal platelet count. The blood test results in addition to the profound splenomegaly, which is the most common finding in patients with CML, make CML the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the hospital in altered sensorium. She is taking slow, shallow breaths and her breath has a fruity smell. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows the presence of ketones. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome (Haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels)

      Correct Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      This a case of gestational diabetes presenting with DKA. It is a serious case that requires immediate intervention. Pregnant diabetics tend to develop DKA on a lower serum glucose level than non-pregnant diabetics. The shortness of breath is a trial to wash the excess CO2 to compensate for the metabolic acidosis seen in the ABG. The fruity smell is acetone excreted through the lungs. The main treatment of this case is proper fluid management and insulin infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Correct

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old male presented with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty in breathing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presented with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty in breathing for the past 2 hours. On examination he had bilateral ankle swelling. Investigations revealed proteinuria of 6g/d. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Reduced factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Reduced antithrombin III activity

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a thromboembolic event most probably secondary to nephrotic syndrome (nephrotic-range proteinuria). Hypercoagulability is due to urinary loss of anticoagulant proteins, such as antithrombin III and plasminogen and an increase in clotting factors, especially factors I, VII, VIII, and X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old woman was admitted with vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman was admitted with vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The history of amenorrhoea, pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding with peritonism and cervical excitation is more suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic presentation and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with a fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations including increased abdominal size and persistent bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - How should DVT during pregnancy be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should DVT during pregnancy be managed?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Dalteparin

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition in which a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the leg.

      Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred treatment for most patients with acute DVT, including in pregnancy. A large meta-analyses comparing LMWH to unfractionated heparin (UFH) showed that LMWH decreased the risk of mortality, recurrent veno-thrombo embolism (VTE), and haemorrhage compared with heparin. Other advantages of LMWH may include more predictable therapeutic response, ease of administration and monitoring, and less heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Disadvantages of LMWH include cost and longer half-life compared with heparin.

      Warfarin, which is administered orally, is used if long-term anticoagulation is needed. The international normalized ratio (INR) is followed, with a target range of 2-3. Warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic, causing a constellation of anomalies known as warfarin embryopathy, with greatest risk between the sixth and twelfth week of gestation.
      Other options are not indicated for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed:


      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 2.9 mmol/l
      Chloride 114 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 µmol/l

      Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 4)

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED complaining of pain in the spine and the onset of severe lower-leg weakness accompanied by a loss of sensation. On examination, he is found to have percussion tenderness of his spine, loss of sensation up to the umbilicus and a distended bladder. He has markedly reduced power of the lower legs with hyperreflexia. Which of the following should not be part of your management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest X-rays

      Correct Answer: Spinal X-rays

      Explanation:

      Acute cord compression is a medical emergency. Typically, signs of segmental damage at the level of compression are usually combined with corticospinal tract dysfunction (e.g., hyperreflexia, Babinski’s sign and weakness) and sensory deficits below the level of compression. Symptoms include spinal pain that precedes the development of weak legs and sensory loss. There may be loss of bladder (and anal) sphincter control, manifesting as hesitancy, frequency and, finally, painless retention.
      Spinal X-rays are rarely diagnostic. MRI is usually the investigation of choice and should not be delayed, but if not available consider doing a CT scan and myelography to confirm cord compression and fully define the level and extent of the lesion. If malignancy is the cause, it is important to give dexamethasone (oral or intravenous) while considering therapy more specific to the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21-year-old student...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21-year-old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old woman experienced right sided weakness shortly after she woke up. However,...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman experienced right sided weakness shortly after she woke up. However, the weakness resolved in 30 minutes and left no disability. Her CT and ECG appear normal. What extra actions should be taken if she is already on Aspirin, Simvastatin, Amlodipine and Bendroflumethiazide?

      Your Answer: Start Aspirin 300 mg for 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient has most probably experienced a transient ischemic attack which should be initially managed with aspirin 300 mg for two weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except? ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?

      Your Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
      The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
      Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few hours ago, blisters appeared on his trunk. His past history revealed nothing serious and he's not on any medication. He admits that he went to Italy five months ago on vacation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigus

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chicken pox in adults may manifest with acute encephalitis, causing the confusional syndrome known as delirium. Blisters on the trunk favour the diagnosis. The trip to Italy however seems unimportant since the incubation period of chicken pox is 10 to 21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.

      In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

      A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.

      Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (2/2) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (4/4) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (4/4) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (5/5) 100%
Renal System (4/4) 100%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed